2006-07-08 02:40:43 · 17 answers · asked by Jolly Boy k 1 in Sports ➔ Cricket
i dont think its possible
2006-07-08 08:40:04 · answer #1 · answered by azaan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the first batsman hit the ball and both run for a single. the throw misses the stumps and hit the helmet/cap of the wicketkeeper that he was not wearing resulting in 5 runs. therefore the total score opf the batsman 1 is 94 +1+5 = 100
the second batsman gets the strike as they took only a single. he hits a six when only 1 was needed and thus they win the match and he also gets his century.
2006-07-12 22:24:59 · answer #2 · answered by keshu 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try to understand this
I am giving the notes from the fifth ball of the last over (As you told that 4 balls are completed) :
5 - No-Ball and a six was been hit by a batsman.
5 - Take a single of fifth ball
6 - The other batsman hits six and that's it!!!. Your problem is solved.
There are many other ways of completing this. If there is a No-Ball. Otherwise it is not possible.
If you want the other ways also then mail me.
2006-07-09 01:13:36 · answer #3 · answered by Sherlock Holmes 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What's 'greece'. Crease!!?? 'Both are want' means what? Idiotic
question!! If one hits a six or gets 6 runs otherwise the game ends there and then with a ball remaining. It would have been a riddle if at least 9 runs are needed to win instead of 6.
2006-07-08 18:31:52 · answer #4 · answered by asok c 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the match rules. If the match ends as soon as the currently batting team gets more runs, then it is impossible. However, if the match ends only after all overs are played, then here is a possible scenario : The batter hits a six. Then, there is a no-ball, which would put the batting team up by one, but there would still be one ball left. Then the other batter comes up and hits a six. Game Over. From what I can see, that is the only possibility
2006-07-08 02:58:23 · answer #5 · answered by yahskaraghu 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1st batsman hits a ball of a no-ball for 5(3 from fielder + 2 overthrow )
. he is on 99 now and other batsman also takes 5 off a no-ball. he is on 99 now.
this continues and at the end,both are on 300 and 2 balls remain!!
2006-07-08 20:00:17 · answer #6 · answered by rapt attention 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no ball and a sixer on 5th ball, take a single and next batsman can hit a six on the last ball.
2006-07-09 02:56:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If one hits a six on a no ball and the other also hits a six
2006-07-08 02:54:51 · answer #8 · answered by shivam 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well in greece they r watching the 2004 olympics
they make century by begging on streets
2006-07-08 05:18:44 · answer #9 · answered by ♫♥♪siddharth ♫♥♪ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
one hits six next is a no ball where the first one gets a single and the other player takes his chance....
2006-07-08 08:26:25 · answer #10 · answered by rekha r 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
lol both can't do that..
just 1 can hit a six and go to 100
2006-07-15 00:06:11 · answer #11 · answered by Ω Nookey™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋