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2006-07-07 22:08:19 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

13 answers

I do get the joke, but maybe you'll still find this explanation of some value.

First, "ph" pronounced as /f/ is NOT like "gh" pronounced with the same sound, or with none at all. It actually is a long-recognized representation of the f-sound. Specifically, it is a "digraph" -- or set of two letters used to represent one sound. Other standard digraphs in English are "ch", "sh" and "th".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digraph_(orthography)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H#Value

Of course, in all those cases, the alphabet lacks a consonant to represent the sound (esp. since the loss of the letters called "thorn" and "eth"-- used for the "th" sounds [with the voice -"the"; without the voice "math"]).

But there is an explanation and a value to the "ph" spelling. English borrowed it for Greek words borrowed THROUGH Latin. It was in Latin that certain conventions for representing the Greek sounds was developed. One of these was "ph" for the Greek letter "phi". (Originally, in the Latin borrowing the sound of "ph" was different from Latin "f", which explains why this new convention developed.) By keeping the "historical orthography [=spelling]" in these cases it is still possible to recognize words of Greek origin, and sometimes to tell something more about how the word is pronounced.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_words_of_Greek_origin#The_written_form_of_Greek_words_in_English

2006-07-08 10:33:17 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 1 0

I don't know much about it either, but there is a very slight change in pronunciation in words that begin with "ph-' and those that do with an 'f'

Try observing the movement of your lips when you say "phone" and "fine" etc.

2006-07-07 23:21:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

poll. right that's some greater: pudenda philately philology prudence persistence pendulous pneumonia pissant pensive pandemonium pantheon pillbox piquant picaresque plagiarism philosophical prejudice perfumery pithy pike poke puke Pythagorean Ptolemaic Phrygian ...and there's a million greater interior the dictionary.

2016-12-08 17:07:40 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

It begins with Ph but sounds like f

2006-07-14 14:35:00 · answer #4 · answered by Cute 7Diva 2 · 0 0

I don't know. Why does every morning begin with a p? Thats just they way it is, the way it was, and the way it always will be. Thus spake, the Super Guru.

2006-07-07 22:17:49 · answer #5 · answered by Sidge 2 · 0 0

because the Greek/Latinate root "phon" means sound. check this out:

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/phonetic

:)

2006-07-07 22:12:13 · answer #6 · answered by XsylviaO 2 · 0 0

I don't know...why does the word "of" have an F instead of a V?

2006-07-07 22:14:42 · answer #7 · answered by ~p♥kes~ 5 · 0 0

Bit like why does the word 'lisp' have an 's' in it? Insult or what!

2006-07-12 19:59:33 · answer #8 · answered by Pink Laydee 2 · 0 0

it begings with a PH which is a FFF sound...

Same as Phone... The slang Phat (FAT).....
and Physics.. Shall i go on??

DOH!

2006-07-07 22:12:25 · answer #9 · answered by Banderes 4 · 0 0

I think people may be missing the irony in your question?
Like it!

2006-07-07 22:15:27 · answer #10 · answered by daveheez 3 · 0 0

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