2006-07-07 09:33:43 · 30 answers · asked by BrianL 6 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
It would equal 0 'cuz the + sign would be a - sign.
right?
2006-07-08 17:10:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
If the mathematical equation "2+2=4" was proven to be a false equation, then, in theory, a new answer would have to be discovered. The reason for the previous equation being incorrect is not necessary for you to know when discovering the correct equation. When you take the digit "2" and merge it with a digit of the same value, such as "2" you, of course, must get an answer of some kind. The common assumption would be that the answer would be somewhere between the number "3.999" and "4.011" What that value would be, is not for me to reveal to you, but for you to discover on your own.
2006-07-07 10:14:28 · answer #2 · answered by hiccup_snickup 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well if I take my 2 plus his 2 it will equal 8. That is just how it works.
2006-07-07 09:49:11 · answer #3 · answered by pottersclay70 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
22
2006-07-07 09:50:02 · answer #4 · answered by ♫♪Ms.J♥Virgo♣♠ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4 + 0i
this is a complex number, even though the imaginary part is zero, it is usually written as 4 but can be written as 4 +0i
alternatively you could say :
2 + 2 = 11 if you were using base 3
or even
2 + 2 = 10 if you were using base 4
and so on.
or if you wanted to get even more confusing use a negative base
using the base -2
then :
2 + 2 = 100
even though 100 is 4 in base -2, i am not quite sure what the maximum digit is in negative bases.
2006-07-07 09:36:59 · answer #5 · answered by MARTIN B 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since the beginning of math... it has been that, by definition, 2+2=4.. Although it is not necessarily true......Think about it.... The difference between the numbers 1 and 2 is infinite.. 1.1,1.01,1.001, etc... the difference between 1 and 100 is also infinite HOWEVER it is not the same infinity as between 1 and 2... Thus, if you add one version of the infinite digit known as 2 to the emergions of another integral anomaly also known as two, you would keep getting different answers ranging in an infinite number line as long as you continue using the same "different" 2!
2006-07-07 09:40:54 · answer #6 · answered by Abner G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If 2 +2 didn't equal 4, you wouldn't have to worry about it because the universe would implode.
2006-07-07 09:36:25 · answer #7 · answered by evilim 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
22 because 2 and 2 makes 22
2006-07-07 09:47:58 · answer #8 · answered by Child Of God 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
22, if you put 2 and 2 together it equals 22.
2006-07-07 09:35:18 · answer #9 · answered by yourstupidityeludesme 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In digital electronics 1+1=1.
2006-07-07 09:36:56 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋