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34 answers

I think it is possible, but that woman would have to be really strong. That, or drug the guy.

2006-07-07 09:11:28 · answer #1 · answered by Jesus S 3 · 0 0

Yes, definitely.

A lot of people feel that its not possible because a man has to be erect to have sexual relations, and that his being erect - and thus 'excited - must mean consent. This is totally not true, however. An erection is a biological response to sexual stimuli that happens without the man's consent. Riding in a bumpy car can give a man an erection, this doesn't mean anyone should be able to have sex with him just because he 'wanted it'. That's just as bad as saying that a woman deserves to get raped for wearing a short skirt.

People also feel that it is not possible because, stereotypically at least, men should be able to overpower woman if they don't want to have sex, AND that men ALWAYS want sex. Both of these are also untrue. A woman can overpower a man in many ways - physically, or with a weapon, or even emotionally or by blackmailing him. And men do not always want sex - thus they are just as able to get raped as woman.

2006-07-07 09:12:42 · answer #2 · answered by Mary 6 · 0 0

Of course it can.

The essence of rape is the absence of appropriate consent to a sexual act.

So long as any type of sexual act occurs in the absence of consent then the non-consenting party has been raped.

Consent must be freely given by an individual who is legally capable of giving consent. Someone who is drunk, for example, is incapable of giving legally effective consent. Others may be too young to be able to legally consent.

Many of the answers already given show the pathetic misunderstanding of the subject in our society especially among the young (which is most of you on this site)

The worst error in that group is that if the victim responds physically it is not rape. It is immaterial if the rape victim responds physically to the sexual act.

2006-07-07 09:24:36 · answer #3 · answered by Rillifane 7 · 0 0

Kinda hard to believe. I never heard of a man being rape , unless he was a willing type. But how can a woman rape a man, when he needs his thing to be hard. If he was fighting her to get off of him. Looks like he wouldn't be thinking of sexual pleasures.

2006-07-07 09:13:42 · answer #4 · answered by kygl28 3 · 0 0

No...

See for the male to be able to have sexuall intercourse, theres a little somthing that has to go "up"... If he did not want the approch, it would not go "up" and intercourse would be impossible...

Anyways, if a man ever was put in a situation as such, it wouldn't be defined as rape, but more like surprise sex... ;)

2006-07-07 09:17:32 · answer #5 · answered by Benjamin 2 · 0 0

I concider rape any form of unwanted sexual act, so yes a woman can rape a man..for example a woman could give the man unwanted oral sex, I would concider that rape...as well as sodomy as gross as it sounds....

2006-07-07 09:12:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, even if his body did not respond (witch they can not help sometimes) remember there is more then one way to rape a person. To disgusting to mention here.

2006-07-07 09:13:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes.. if the guy doesnt want to have sex, and the woman forces it.. and the guy continues to tell her no.. its rape..

most of the time.. men rape women, so we never really see/hear men being raped by women..

2006-07-07 09:11:36 · answer #8 · answered by :) Love Me. 5 · 0 0

Yes of course

2006-07-07 09:09:41 · answer #9 · answered by Eternity 6 · 0 0

If it's a big woman and weak man I guess it could happen

2006-07-07 09:10:02 · answer #10 · answered by KDP 1 · 0 0

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