For all N in the world Happiness (N) - Sadness (N) = 0 Does u believe?

Question

For all N in the world Happiness (N) - Sadness (N) = 0 Does u believe?

Answer 1

yes, i do belive you.man, in his life goes through many stages where he faces happy and sad moments. but ultimately by seeing the world it can be concluded that happiness grasps sadness or vice-versa.

Answer 2

This additionally looks transparently fake: evaluate f(x) = exp(-x) f(0) = a million f'(x) = -exp(-x) < 0 f'(0) = -a million and for all x € (0, infinity), 0 < f(x) < a million ? (0 to n) (f(x)^n dx = ? (0 to n) exp(-nx) dx = (a million/n) ? (0 to n^2) exp(-y) dy = (a million/n)(a million - exp(-n^2)) So the cut back you're soliciting for is lim (n ? ?) (a million/n) = 0 yet -a million/f'(0) = a million 0 isn't = a million Am I fake effect you? replace: Magee Coe a million) i think you're mis-pointing out the mean-fee theorem: you ought to discover that the imperative = (a million+n)*d*f'(s)*f(s)^n for some s in [0,d] 2) You seem utilising the incontrovertible fact that d ~ n => infinity to get the (-a million), yet then use d => 0 on the top. you are able to not have it the two techniques. replace 2: Steiner in accordance to the unique difficulty description, you in user-friendly terms confine the linked fee in [0,a million] over the variety x = 0 to a million. So what if we enable f be a periodic functionality that is going damaging for some values x > a million ? i think of that would desire to screw up the cut back, as n shifts between even and surprising values. replace 3: On added learn, I now consider Magee Coe, decrease than the perception that 0 < f(x) < a million for all x > 0. (The substitute of variety removes the assumption for a periodic functionality, as proposed by ability of Dr.D and myself.)

Answer 3

That's really odd, because something happy to you could be something sad to some one else

Example:

You tripped in mud
Hapiness(0) minus Sadness(10)= -10

Same scenario

I hate your guts, so I'm happy that you tripped
Hapiness(20) minus Sadness(0)= 20

See what I mean?

Answer 4

No.
If this would be true there would always be the same amount of amount of happiness and sadness in the world.
However history show otherwise. At some point in history people felt WAY more sad and less Happy then in others.
For example World Wars definitely brought WAY more sadness then happiness.
Happiness(Holocaust) - Sadness (Holocaust) = HUGE NEGATIVE number.

Answer 5

Yes.

Both happiness and sadness can be given the same letter indicator because they coexist in everything -- your happiness could easily be my sadness. These words are only terms we've given to feelings -- my sadness could be your happiness because of differing circumstances this value and vice versa. So sadness and haqppiness could be given the same value. If you subtract a value from itself you get zero.

Answer 6

The more general question would be "Do opposites have to exist in equal proportions?" Is there an equal amount of Yin for the same amount of Yang? (Matter for Anti-matter, Heaven for Hell etc.) Remember, "For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction".

Answer 7

You can not have one without the other.