I secured a loan. The account it was placed in required two signatures. The "second party" convinced the bank via telephone to transfer all of those funds into a second account (telephone transfer). Do I have any potential recourse with the bank (loan officer) who released the funds in such a manner? The "second party's name was NOT on the loan document.
2006-07-05 18:35:11 · 5 answers · asked by Virg 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Small Business
Your best course of action in this case is to review the contract between the bank, yourself, and the cosigning party. Review the specific wording of the contract regarding transfers and consult with an attorney as soon as you can.
2006-07-05 18:43:24 · answer #1 · answered by Robert M 2 · 7⤊ 3⤋
If the person who had funds transferred was not on the account then the bank is responsible. Get a lawyer. Also go to the police and make a police report that is theft and since it occurred through the bank federal charges should be brought against this person.
2006-07-05 18:41:26 · answer #2 · answered by DD 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sounds like you do have recourse...but the other signator will be liable in the end. The bank will not just pay you and leave it at that.
2006-07-05 18:39:30 · answer #3 · answered by gcbtrading 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its required to have one signature before transfering all funds, good luck and talk to a lawyer
2006-07-05 18:40:39 · answer #4 · answered by ms_fantastico 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well the bank should have notified you for the transfer.......so yeah i think it was banks fault......i dont see why they would have allowed such a trasfer without the other parties okay....
2006-07-05 18:40:07 · answer #5 · answered by Lisa 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋