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2006-07-05 15:15:51 · 8 answers · asked by negar m 1 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

No! There is no common ethnic background unless you go back to the roots of all mankind which would make everybody related to eachother.
I suppose you are asking because of the term "Aryan"?

Since ancient times, Persians have used the term Aryan in the ethnic sense to describe their lineage and their language, and this tradition has continued into the present day amongst modern Iranians (Encyclopedia Iranica, p. 681, Arya). In fact, the name Iran is a cognate of Aryan and means "Land of the Aryans.

The Aryan race was a term used in the early 20th century by European racial theorists who believed strongly in the division of humanity into biologically distinct races with differing characteristics. Such writers took the view that the Proto-Indo-Europeans constituted a specific race that had expanded across Europe, Iran and India. This meaning was, and still is, common in theories of racial superiority which were embraced by Nazi Germany. This usage tends to merge the Avestan/Sanskrit meaning of "noble" or "elevated" with the idea of distinctive ancestral ethnicity marked by language distribution. In this interpretation, the Aryan Race is both the highest representative of mankind and the purest descendent of the Proto-Indo-European population.

2006-07-05 15:23:56 · answer #1 · answered by ganja_claus 6 · 1 0

It's ridiculous that questions like that are even asked.

Germans have absolutely nothing in common with Iranians. That Persia! Germany and the Germans come from the tribe Germanen, which was a Celtic tribe in the very early years.Almost whole Europe has evolved from different Celtic tribes.

2006-07-06 22:55:06 · answer #2 · answered by D. D. 2 · 1 0

kind the be wakeful Aryan into the search engine and be open minded adequate to study the classic nomadic tribal people of Euro-Asia. The be wakeful "Aryan" has been modern-day in Sanskrit and ability extra acceptable or noble. Hitler used the be wakeful to intend "extra acceptable" with a view to create his Aryan race, which substitute into faulty as that race died out or substitute into absorbed by using utilising conquering tribes centuries beforehand Hitler. The Aryans are believed to go back from the section really North of what's now India and are believed to were of lighter pores and epidermis coloration than the peoples they conquered. They weren't Iranian or German because of the very actuality those nationalities did now not exist them. may Indo-ecu international places declare to be descended from the Aryan Peoples.

2016-11-01 06:47:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Of Course not, were did you get an idea like that?
Ever seen a German? Look at the news!
Germanic is nordic!!!!
See Iraq or Iran anywhere north on the map?

2006-07-05 17:21:30 · answer #4 · answered by Mightymo 6 · 0 1

In a way you could say yes

the all belong to the pool of central asian aryan tribes that migrated to different regions

2006-07-05 15:23:34 · answer #5 · answered by anoop_pattat 3 · 0 0

Iranian and persians are same and i think they are related to Indians.

2006-07-05 16:08:34 · answer #6 · answered by sochn9022jkl 1 · 0 1

I guess it's possible, but not completely true.

2006-07-05 15:19:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not.

2006-07-05 15:56:18 · answer #8 · answered by sweet & sour 6 · 0 0

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