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I know this sounds absurd....but itz "amazing yet true"
Proof:
1 = (-1) * (-1) = (i^2) * (i^2)
take square root on both sides,
sqrt(1) = sqrt(i^2) * sqrt(i^2)
this implies tat,
1 = i * i = i^2 = (-1)
therefore,
1 = (-1)
Duh!...thatz about it...whadya fellas got to say about tat???
:)

2006-07-05 04:27:57 · 22 answers · asked by Danny 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

22 answers

huhhh! friend breaktime...download the music one plus one minus one equals one.

2006-07-05 04:35:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

"sqrt(1) = sqrt(i^2) * sqrt(i^2)
this implies t[h]at,
1 = i * i = i^2 = (-1)"

The above line is where you go wrong. The square root of 1 is either plus or minus 1, so you really haven't implied anything, just done a little manipulating of imaginary numbers to make them do what you want them to do.

you could also do this:

1) sqrt(1) = sqrt(i^2) * sqrt(i^2)
2) sqrt(1) = sqrt(i^4) = sqrt(1)
3) 1=1

Don't mess with the identity postulate!

2006-07-05 14:44:18 · answer #2 · answered by foible 2 · 0 0

if you keep the √1 = i^2,
tat mean you get 1 = i^4,
hence you will get 1 = √ -1*√- 1*√ -1*√-1
and you can get the value 1 = 1.
And you see that 1 = i^2 * i^2, we can factorize in this way,
1 = i^4.
then, 1 = (i^2)^2
√1 = i^2
+/-1 = i^2

answer show that i^2 = 1 or -1
By checking i^2 = (√-1)^2
= -1

so the equation of i^2 = 1 is rejected
and i^2 = -1 is accepted as answer.

2006-07-05 11:55:52 · answer #3 · answered by bluelight 1 · 0 0

I think sqrt of 1 is +1 OR -1

2006-07-05 11:55:49 · answer #4 · answered by sunil 3 · 0 0

The problem is you are dealing with an imaginary number (i) or -1. Mathematical calculations involving the square root of negative numbers produce undefined answers that is your problem

2006-07-05 11:34:23 · answer #5 · answered by davejckent 1 · 0 0

SQRT(1) = +1 or -1

2006-07-06 01:16:49 · answer #6 · answered by Lee J 4 · 0 0

The magnitude, or absolute value, of negative one is equal to that of positive one. But they occupy different places on the number line. They are symmetrically distant from zero, in that they have the same absolute value. Congratulations for discovering this concept for yourself!

2006-07-05 11:43:57 · answer #7 · answered by cdf-rom 7 · 0 0

Problem here is i is an imaginary number....if you look at the basics of math, 1 does not equal -1.

2006-07-05 11:32:36 · answer #8 · answered by pw 2 · 0 0

999999999999999999999999999999999 + 1 =
1000000000000000000000000000000000

2006-07-05 11:30:35 · answer #9 · answered by Cliff 2 · 0 0

I say that everyone has had alegbra and that that was quite obvious! If you really want to help someone out come back with help for Calc II!

2006-07-05 11:31:07 · answer #10 · answered by Belle Noir 3 · 0 0

by ur method can u not prove that any nunmber is equal to any other number? and if "minus" is equal to "plus" then 1 = -1, cheers!!

2006-07-05 11:44:43 · answer #11 · answered by smilee 2 · 0 0

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