Please explain..
2006-07-05 01:53:02 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
No, something with great speed may be slowing down.
2006-07-05 01:57:14 · answer #1 · answered by Nelson_DeVon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hmmm. A bit vague. Speed just relates to how fast an object is travelling. For example, a car might be travelling at 60 miles per hour ( about 100 kilometres per hour). This could vary of course. Acceleration is how much time it takes an object to reach a certain speed ( there are other interpretations but I'll stick to this). For example, it might take the car 10 seconds to reach the 60 mph from a standing start. Speed and acceleration are two different quantities. In short - no . Think of NASCAR cars. They don't have GREAT acceleration but they do have a high top speed. That is related to gearing ( but that's another matter). The car I spoke about ( say an average family sedan )might be quicker to 60 mph than a NASCAR but it has a lower top speed.
2006-07-05 02:01:20 · answer #2 · answered by ezc692 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well, the answer is no.
to put it simply it is NOT NECESSARY that an object with greater speed has greater acceleration. there may be cases when this is true.
for eg. if 2 bodies are initially at rest. suppose both get different accelerations. then after a fixed interval of time the body with greater speed is the one which has greater acc..
in some cases this may not be so.
for eg.suppose 1 body is moving with a constant vel.. 60m/s
it has no acceleration.
another body say starts from rest with an acc.. 3m/s^2.this body will have vel=60m/s only at t=20s.
but at an intermediate time (say) 10s it has vel=30m/s which is lesser than the velocity of the first body even though it has more acceleration than the first body.
2006-07-05 06:56:44 · answer #3 · answered by lone rider 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It may accelerate at a slower speed than another object, but gain greater speed after acceleration. Did that make sense? lol
2006-07-05 01:56:46 · answer #4 · answered by sparkie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hi pal, it really is not needed for the first body to posses more beneficial acceleration because acceleration is cost of substitute of speed(speed).A body shifting at consistent speed has "0" acceleration and also a body which has merely began would have more beneficial acceleration than one shifting at consistent speed.desire this may help you understand the version.
2016-11-05 22:07:05 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no acceleration is the continued increase of speed over time.
Object will have greater momentum if it is going faster than another object of equal mass.
2006-07-05 01:55:45 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
acceleration depends on velocity and time. If you subtract the final velocity with the initial velocity on time you will get acceleration. acceleration is the weight of an object. while the speed depends on the distant and time. they are linked together and has to do with each other.
2006-07-05 02:55:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no.
it may be at the speed of light which is the fastest ther is,but a car has more acceleration because the speed of light is constant meaning its acceleration equals zero.
2006-07-05 01:58:43 · answer #8 · answered by shogunly 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Speed is a scalar quantity, showing only distance, and acceleration is a vector quantity, showing both distance and displacement.
I think the answer is yes.
2006-07-05 01:56:08 · answer #9 · answered by Rocio 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
an ION accelerator takes a long time to do it's work on speeding up an ION.
2006-07-05 01:57:24 · answer #10 · answered by Iron Rider 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋