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For those of you into Kant.

2006-07-03 09:20:47 · 3 answers · asked by The Witten 4 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

3 answers

a priori / a posteriori
Distinction among judgments, propositions, concepts, ideas, arguments, or kinds of knowledge. In each case, the a priori is taken to be independent of sensory experience, which the a posteriori presupposes. An a priori argument, then, is taken to reason deductively from abstract general premises, while an a posteriori argument relies upon specific information derived from sense perception. The necessary truth of an a priori proposition can be determined by reason alone, but the contingent truth of an a posteriori proposition can be discovered only by reference to some matter of fact. Thus, for example:

"3 + 4 = 7." may be known a priori.

"Chicago is located on the shore of Lake Michigan." is known only a posteriori.

Rationalists typically emphasize the importance of a priori ideas and arguments in establishing genuine knowledge on a firm foundation. Kant argued that synthetic a priori judgments are preconditions for any experience and thus provide a basis for mathematical and scientific knowledge. Empiricists, on the other hand, usually hold that all a priori propositions are merely analytic, so that we must rely on a posteriori propositions for significant information about the world. Kripke challenges even the identification of this distinction with that between the necessary and the contingent.

2006-07-03 09:40:07 · answer #1 · answered by Randy 7 · 0 0

Well, an a priori synthetic judgement is, by Kant's definition, a proposition whose predicate concept is not contained in its subject concept. I'm not sure, but it seems that this means a judgement that can only be confirmed by experience, because the judgement does not logically follow from the definition of the terms.

For example, "all stallions are male" is not a synthetic judgement, but an analytic judgement, because the definition of the word "stallion" is a male horse. But "all stallions are gray" is synthetic, because whether it is gray or not is unrelated to the definition of "stallion". It can only be proved by checking all stallions, in other words, through experience.

2006-07-03 09:32:16 · answer #2 · answered by Jim Trebek 2 · 0 0

properly, an a priori guy made judgement is, by ability of Kant's definition, a proposition whose predicate concept isn't contained in its venture concept. i'm not sure, even nonetheless it kind of feels that this suggests a judgement which could in user-friendly terms be shown by ability of journey, because of the fact the judgement does not logically shop on with from the definition of the words. for occasion, "all stallions are male" isn't a guy made judgement, yet an analytic judgement, because of the fact the definition of the understanding "stallion" is a male horse. yet "all stallions are gray" is guy made, because of the fact in spite of if that's gray or not is unrelated to the definition of "stallion". it could in user-friendly terms be proved by ability of checking all stallions, in different words, via journey.

2016-12-08 15:20:43 · answer #3 · answered by Erika 4 · 0 0

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