English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Critically compare the Arbitrage Pricing Theory with the Capital Asset Pricing Model for use by a fund manager in the UK

2006-07-02 01:32:02 · 4 answers · asked by tanu2bht 1 in Business & Finance Investing

4 answers

The "beta" coefficient is central to both of the theories. The fundamental difference between the two theories is that CAPM incorporates a single "beta" to its model, whereas APT a few.

"beta" is a measure of sensitivity for the returns of a portfolio. In CAPM, "beta" measures how sensitive is a portfolio with respect to the returns in the market. For the APT model, however, the "beta"s measure how sensitive is the portfolio with respect to some macroeconomic factors. These factors are determined by the designer of the model, and are subjective.

2006-07-02 03:01:36 · answer #1 · answered by ufukguc 2 · 0 0

Search for information on Roll's Critque of CAPM this will provide information on CAPM failings.

Shanken's Challenge of APT will provide you with the problems of APT.

CAPM and APT are standard models and there should be numerous descriptions of these models either on the internet or in a standard investment book.

2006-07-04 13:29:36 · answer #2 · answered by Damien A 2 · 0 0

No way! Soooorry, you gotta hide it better when you want us to write your homework for you.

2006-07-02 08:41:26 · answer #3 · answered by wild_eep 6 · 0 0

If you know all those big words ans your own Question

2006-07-16 07:57:35 · answer #4 · answered by stillhappy89 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers