2006-06-30 21:47:47 · 4 answers · asked by mick h 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
well i'm not sure how many numbers are in the lottery your talking about but heres the answer
ok the first number that you get will have 1out of the number of balls chance of coming up so if there are 45 balls the chance is
1/45
then the second number is 1/44 because you remove one from the first pick
to get group probabilities you multiply each together
so for three and 4 numbers for 45 balls the equation would be
1/45 * 1/44 * 1/43 * 1/42
which is equal too 1/3575880
2006-06-30 22:10:33 · answer #1 · answered by woot!! 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3 numbers. 49 x 48 x 47 divided by 6 x 5 x 4
4 numbers 49 x 48 x 47 x 46 divided by 6 x 5 x 4 x 3
In other words the prize is half the true odds. This is not the case in the 5 number draw but is the case in the 2 numbers and 1 number draw
2006-07-01 10:59:23 · answer #2 · answered by David R 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5 to 1
2006-06-30 21:51:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
very unlikly, it is just as likley to get hity by lightning....
2006-06-30 22:03:38 · answer #4 · answered by legalboozer2003 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋