I have over the years (esp. when working in nightclubs and restaurants with a large gay clientel) noticed a distincly higher percentage of (mostly men) deaf homosexuals. Recently the movie "The Family Stone" reminded me of the phenomenon..
what's up with that?
- is it because the gay community is more accepting of differrences and in this case, being deaf?
- were deaf schools rampant with sexual abuse and molestation?
- is there some sort of sociological expanation? physiological explanation?
- does the ability of deaf people to "hear" heavy bass make them more inclined towards disco and house music and thusly gravitate towards gay bars??
serious question (despite the last rather facetious remark)... anyone else observed this?
not interested in haters or bigotted responses either.. I've got nuthin but RESPECT for my gay brothers and sisters....
2006-06-30 07:07:01 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Not intending to imply that homosexuality necessarily is necessarily caused by molestation or abuse.. but it HAS and CAN be...
certainly the debate over biology vs environoment vs genetic and learned influences is still ongoing - and don't think its necessarily "ignorant".. I have more than one gay friend who have been (perhaps incidentally) sexually abused as children..
...in any event - no offence intended.
2006-06-30 07:27:35 · update #1
I used to own a very large night club...gay, and truthfully, although there were nights when several students at Galudet (Washington DC school for the deaf) would come in droves, the overall percentages didn't vary from the standard. I saw no evidence that deaf and gay were any different than the general population. AND YES, they do like the vibrations set up by the bass. I asked, I was told. Good luck
2006-06-30 08:20:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 0⤋
I haven't noticed this phenomena. I have noticed that deaf people tend to hang out together and form a very strong community -- so you may be noticing that, rather than a larger percentage of a population. Might make a great study -- you could get a research grant.
By the way -- your comment on sexual abuse and molestation could make you look ignorant. Homosexuality is not caused by abuse.
2006-06-30 14:21:26 · answer #2 · answered by arrghyle 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Can't say I've seen any reports to that effect - could it be local to your area? Like there's a large deaf community and, so, a proportionately larger number of deaf gays?
Of course prolonged exposure to loud disco & house music is liable to make one hard of hearing :)
I'll be interested to see what others write about this.
2006-06-30 14:22:52 · answer #3 · answered by unclefrunk 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hmm i have never ever met a totally deaf gay person
BUT im 40% deaf in both ears but that is due to working next to a loudspeaker in a niteclub for 3 years!
2006-06-30 14:38:33 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋