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In the world of quantum physics, this may not be as stupid a question as it sounds.

2006-06-30 04:12:44 · 2 answers · asked by In Honor of Moja 4 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

If we define something as a quantum mechanical wavefunction -- then there is no such thing as "nothing" as each particle in the universe has a probability of being (occupying) everywhere therein. In other words the wavefunction only goes to zero at infinity. Classical mechanics, of course, says otherwise.

Perhaps what you seek is more of a comparison WITHIN a probability distribution function for "things" in which the maximum amplitude of a thing's wavefunction is indeed MORE than nothing -- if we define nothing as being at infinity that is.

Of course the philosophical argument may go that if we are creatures exterior to our (current) universe in some manner, then perhaps we may thrive on "nothing" (with respect to the current universe). In that case, "nothing" has more value to us than something. And indeed, it would be more. Perhaps since Elvis is hanging out on cloud nine, he's saying "nothing is more than something".

So, it is not simply a matter of quantum mechanics, but one of relativity. Elvis may want to consult Einstein on that one. ;)

2006-07-01 04:12:27 · answer #1 · answered by thoughfulme 2 · 2 2

Nothing is still something.
If you could have an absence ofeverything, or total nothingness, then you'd really have nothing, but that never happens

2006-06-30 04:16:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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