2006-06-30 00:05:45 · 21 answers · asked by robin d 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ English Football
Yes.
2006-06-30 00:09:26 · answer #1 · answered by Stammerman! 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
If it was a fix, don't you think FIFA would have investigated it and interrogated all of the individuals involved?
And anyway, even if that goal wouldn't have counted, we still would've won, remember the score was 4-2.
And i, like many have seen the new Kit Kat advert with the Linesman eating a Kit Kat, that didn't happen, that was just a promotional scheme.
And replying to the person who said the linesman was fighting against the Germans in WW2, heres a fact for you.
1. FIFA do not allocate the same nationality Officials as one of the countries that are playing. So the Officials in the England - Germany game in '66 wouldn't have been German or English.
2006-06-30 07:24:15 · answer #2 · answered by BigJonnyKool 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Every World Cup is a fix
2006-06-30 14:40:18 · answer #3 · answered by SouthOckendon 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it wasn't. And, Sean F, what exactly is there in 'the English nature' that leads you to believe it was? How many match-fixing scandals in England can you name, apart from one involving a Zimbabwean goalkeeper? I thought so. I on the other hand can think of several involving the German, French and Italian leagues, plus a few in the World Cup (remember Austria v Germany 82? Argentina v Paraguay 78?) Keep your bigoted crap to yourself.
2006-06-30 09:28:59 · answer #4 · answered by paulw92 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
66 was no fix but if Italy had had a decent chance of winning then Italy would have won!! they seem to try and fix every thing from their elections to the Joga Bonito (the beautiful game). Did you know that italian tanks in ww2 had 4 reverse gears and only 1 forward gear?? can any one tell me what they are good for ??
2006-07-01 04:49:43 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wasn't and it is now proved as they made a research and the computer has shown that the goal was in fact to convalidate. What about the 82, where the Italians paid to win the world cup? Is ti possible that no one ever talked about it? There were even investigations, but the italians as their usual selves paid the investigators not to continue
2006-06-30 09:49:30 · answer #6 · answered by Michael B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1966 was England's World Cup. We hosted it. We won it. The final kicked-off at the Britain's favourite kick-off time: 3 o'clock on a Saturday afternoon.
Everyone should refer to it as FA World Cup 1966 (as opposed to FIFA World Cup)
2006-06-30 08:10:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why? Because of THE "goal", that the Germans say wasn't a goal? As an English person, I maintain it was a goal. :D
Apparently the linesman who gave it was a soldier who fought against the Germans in WW2.
2006-06-30 07:08:43 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
as a english person i am deeply annoyed by the crap like its in english nature we invented fair play and sports manship and back then even england fans would of said something if it wasnt a goal anywayz we woulda won 3-2 so it doesnt matter.
2006-06-30 13:06:26 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
football historians still question one of Englands goals
against Germany in W. C 1966 Only Soviet line referee .Bachramov considered the goal LEGAL
2006-06-30 09:07:10 · answer #10 · answered by opaalvarez 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋