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2006-06-29 04:28:59 · 6 answers · asked by mejologz 2 in Science & Mathematics Physics

6 answers

Magnetism arises from the movement of electric charge. It is a manifestation of the electrosatic force (there is per se no magentic force).

A moving charge always creates and polarised magnetic field - ie it has a north and south. Monopoles do not exist.

However, it would be equally possible to describe the situation with magnetic monpoles leading to polarised electric charge.

No magenticm monopoles have been found to exist.

2006-06-29 04:33:22 · answer #1 · answered by Epidavros 4 · 1 0

The polarities exist because, for us anyway, evey single magnet and electromagnetic device on the planet is governed by the Earth's poles. This is why we have N and S pole on a magnet. If the Earth did not have a liquid Iron core we would be screwed really? It's the movement of the Iron in the core the creates the magnetism through natural electromagnetic actions. If this didn't exist no magnet would be magnetic unles it's an electromagnet with a power source. A magnet does not create magnetism, an acting force does (the Earth). A magnet just has it's electrons aligned correctly.

It's like the way you can create a chain of paper clips with a magent at one end. Take the magnet away and everything falls apart.

2006-06-30 10:51:42 · answer #2 · answered by thejedi 2 · 0 0

Well magnets are just a device which store magnetic flux. This flux is produced in Iron. The reason it has polarities? well the force of flux has to travel from one end to another for it to exist. Like an electric circuit. So when it becomes possible for the lines of force to create linkage its sensible that it has a direction of flow. We decided to called one end north and one end south in sympathy with the earths magnetic core. Its as plain and simple as that.

2006-06-29 11:34:56 · answer #3 · answered by jonstarjon 1 · 0 0

I think this question should be more about philosophy at this point than physics... but matter is ordered by negative and positive charges, (and fractional charges called quarks also), and magnets have perfectly alligned charges.

(Sorry, that's the best I can give you...but it's not bad for a stockbroker with a degree in psychology)

2006-06-29 11:32:12 · answer #4 · answered by thedavecorp 6 · 0 0

lets see whenever you say manget then it may be of two types.........one natural magnets ie atomic mangets and second are electro magnet.............but the origin both is no doubt similar........in both the cases a charge particle electron is moving in some colsed path......................now you can imagine suppose you and your friend are standing in front of each other now what i do i put one transprant glass sheet in between you..........now assume that a ant is moving clockwise on a circular path with respect to you on glass then with respect to your friend the same ant will move in anti clocl wise direction..........now if i put charge insted of ant then then for you the direction of magnetic field will be different than your freind..........so with this example you can understand how to understand the existance of two magnetic poles.....?

2006-06-29 13:02:36 · answer #5 · answered by pankaj s 2 · 0 0

That's actually what makes it a magnet. Otherwise, it would just be a rock.

2006-06-29 11:30:26 · answer #6 · answered by Beardog 7 · 0 0

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