2006-06-28 17:25:45 · 9 answers · asked by alex 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yes
2006-06-28 17:28:47 · answer #1 · answered by cj r 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No & Yes....
it is not the same... Because....
4 times a #, decreased by 3 more than the number...
when expressed in algebraic terms.. it is...
4x - (3+x)...
which when simplified is equivalent to 3(x-1)....
Yes, it is the same...
it all lies on how you interpret the phrase "4 times a #, decreased by 3 more than the number"...
first you evaluate the phrase before the comma...
"4 times a #" is the same as 4x...
then you do the decrease by placing a '-' sign...
4x - 3...
lastly you add the sign '>' to the expression as you know x stands for the number...
4x - 3 > x...
but in logical mathematical terms, the answer is no.. it is not the same...
cheers.... (",)
2006-06-29 02:02:17 · answer #2 · answered by Ellusive Lady 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
more than stands for +
u use greater than
what u said is 4x-3+x
2006-06-29 01:09:10 · answer #3 · answered by Uli V 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if X is a negative number
2006-06-29 00:29:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
wait...if it was 4 times a #, decreased by 3 IS more than the number then ud get that but wat i see is 4x-3+x...which would get you 5x+3......
2006-06-29 00:32:34 · answer #5 · answered by my_cat_rocks 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4x - (x + 3)
2006-06-29 00:42:26 · answer #6 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Basically, from this equation you can determine that X > 0...
2006-06-29 00:29:01 · answer #7 · answered by Mike B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yup u r right it means the same .
2006-06-29 00:30:17 · answer #8 · answered by ilovefridays 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no... it's 4x-(x+3)... idk where u get the ">x" part
2006-06-29 00:35:38 · answer #9 · answered by Nick 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋