...for businesses to sell drug paraphernalia (like roach clips and crack pipes) when it is illegal for individuals to be "in possession" of these items. Are the businesses not "in possession" before they sell them and encouraging possession of such items when they do sell them.
I have seen so many stores selling them openly these days and I wonder how they can be allowed to do this.
2006-06-28 14:26:22 · 9 answers · asked by tiffany 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
They can only legally sell these items if they label them as "tobacco use only." It doesn't make it ok, but it lets them get away with it.
2006-06-28 14:31:31 · answer #1 · answered by butterflykisses_1897 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They sell them because they also have other lawful uses. They don't become illegal until they are used and then contain drug residue. I have possession of two pipes that I bought in Korea. In theory, they could be used for smoking marijuana, however, since they have never been used, I can not be arrested for drug paraphernalia.
2006-06-28 14:36:26 · answer #2 · answered by Jim T 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is only paraphernalia if drug residue is found on it. If it is clean they must return the items. In some cases there as been law suits that have been won over such things.
2006-06-28 14:40:28 · answer #3 · answered by raven blackwing 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The reason they are able to sell paraphernalia is because the same reason they are able to sell guns in stores, because noone is to say what you are going to with the gun whether or not you are going to kill someone with it or use it for protection or as in the case of pipes and other paraphernalia who is to say you are going to use it for crack you can use it for weed, no i am joking you can use it for tabacco. Most of the time the market it as tabacco products. If you donot like the fact they are able to buy such products you should probly not go into those type of stores anymore, considering they only sell these type of products in highly regulated stores, usually in sex toy stores, and tabacco shops.
-Always here to offer enlightenment.
2006-06-28 15:00:31 · answer #4 · answered by gettinpaidmyway 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have no clue.
I know they can sell them because they serve other purposes... like for normal tobacco. But I don't understand why a person can not be in possession of them if they don't also possess an illegal drug.
Makes absolutely no sense.
2006-06-28 14:30:33 · answer #5 · answered by BeachBum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are (theoretically, but not really) being sold for use with tobacco.
Just remember, a paper clip, a razor blade, a drinking straw can all be considered drug paraphenalia. So where do you stop?
2006-06-28 14:30:38 · answer #6 · answered by grinningleaf 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Drug paraphenalia only becomes such when it is used to ingest drugs. So, as long as there are no traces of THC on your bong, it is perfectly legal.
2006-06-28 14:36:15 · answer #7 · answered by James 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's only illegal to be in possession if they have resin on them, you know, they have evidence of being used in an illegal way
2006-06-28 14:34:14 · answer #8 · answered by CherBear 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
u know, i always wonder the same thing.....just doesnt seem right......
2006-06-28 15:08:58 · answer #9 · answered by ricstr03 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋