I'm in the process of divorce and I own 2 properties before marriage. The one where we lived (12yrs ago) was the 2nd home and I bought it like 9 month before marriage. She is not in title on any of this properties. Is she intitle to get part of the equity or more of the home value? This divorce is mainly for the benefits of money, She asked for the divorce.
2006-06-28 13:21:25 · 14 answers · asked by Juan o 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
We live teh state of California
2006-06-29 06:18:49 · update #1
You would have to find out if you live in a Community Property State or not. In MOST states, property you owned prior to the marriage is NOT divided, and stays as your's alone. Only property purchased DURING the marriage falls under that category. Good luck!
2006-06-28 13:27:04 · answer #1 · answered by nonya_askme 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some states are what's called 'Community Property' States. That means that generally both people are entitled to half of everything. The catch here though is that even in a community property state, the Judge will look at how long you were married and take into account things that were acquired before the marriage. Most attorneys will give a free consultation if you ask for that when you call their office. I'd see one or 2 attorneys in your area and they can get more specific for you free of charge! Good Luck!
The Counselor
2006-06-28 13:28:42 · answer #2 · answered by The Counselor 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It varies by state dear.
Here in Oregon, if you are married longer than 10 years she is entitled to 50% of everything, INCLUDING properties that are solely in your name. She will also be entitled to your Social Security Retirement Benefits as you get to retirement age, as she was married to you for the governments '10 year mark'. So in many states it is 10 years, and if you do some research on the net, I am sure you could find out what the statute is for your state. :)
I sure am sorry to hear that you are getting divorced, but I sure hope that no matter what happens, it's ONLY money and that can be remade! You will be better off without her, and you can date/find someone new that will love you for you (I find it HARD to believe she stayed married for 12 years ONLY for the money.. unless your STATE happens to be 12 yr limit.. know what I mean?).
I wish you the best :) /comf
2006-06-28 13:29:44 · answer #3 · answered by replies2news 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it may depend on what state you are in, but I believe here in Michigan, she would not be intitled to either property.
2006-06-28 13:24:20 · answer #4 · answered by Holly H 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know what state that you live in because that matter's when my ex.tried that with me.The judge said no way because
I had it first. What is yours before marriage is yours after
the divorce and she needs to get a life.
2006-06-28 13:33:38 · answer #5 · answered by resrat 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
fight it! In the state of california they say 50/50. Get a good lawyer!
2006-07-05 22:47:20 · answer #6 · answered by cecimad 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did you sign a prenup? If not, she may end up getting some of your assets, even if you did acquire them prior to the marriage.
2006-06-28 13:32:53 · answer #7 · answered by Chris 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I know that if you are in the state of Texas whatever you had before your marriage is your I know personal expierence
2006-06-28 13:26:20 · answer #8 · answered by msmelissahernandez28 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on state laws-here in co what was yours before the marrage is yours after so the prop. would be yours..ask an attorney for the laws in your state
2006-06-28 13:26:00 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
huh, tough question. if you bought it with 'your' money then absolutely not. This gold digging girl should have no imput since she is not in either of the property titles.
2006-06-28 13:36:07 · answer #10 · answered by rkjackal02 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋