YOU WILL GET HALF if you have young dependent kids you will get 73% I'm right believe me. thats if your British of course?
2006-06-28 12:33:11
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
1⤋
It depends on several things. Do you live in a state with a no fault divorce? Did you get the home after you were married or did he already own it and if so was it paid for. In a state with a no fault divorce you both keep what you brought in to the relationship and split what you have aquired since then. If he bought it before you got married but say that you've paid on it since you have been married then you are entitled to something. If he does not agree to split with you just get a decent lawyer.
2006-06-28 12:27:54
·
answer #2
·
answered by tcb396 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
not sure where you would stand...but pretty sure i know where you would sleep-in some cardboard boxes on a street....unless of course you can get him to change the mortgage over so you both have your names on it? Be honest, tell him that for secrurity and for your own piece of mind you would prefer the house to be in your name aswell, then if he agree's to it-great! if he doesnt agree to getting it changed....perhaps you should just divorce him now, cos if the worse happened and you split up....
1) your pretty buggered!
2) your homeless
3) why wont he change it!!!
Good luck, xx
2006-06-28 15:12:03
·
answer #3
·
answered by splight 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Without a house, unless it was granted to you through as court case.
It's quite easy to get added, but you need his permission - He'll have to contact the mortgage company and ask for the relevant forms. It's simply a case of adding a name then signing to say he agrees
2006-06-28 12:24:42
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
If his name is on the mortgage and not yours, you wouldn't automatically be entitled to any share of the house (or proceeds from the sale), unless (a) you went to court and proved you deserved it, or (b) the state you live in has provisions for such a thing.
2006-06-28 12:24:00
·
answer #5
·
answered by daveowenville 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
You are still legally entitled to a half share of the marital home even though your name does not appear on the mortgage.
2006-06-28 19:31:02
·
answer #6
·
answered by monkeyface 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Are you in Canada? Each province has a dial a law for information. You can go through the pre-recorded menu. Quite often a good lawyer will answer your question free. Hope this helps.
2006-06-28 12:56:09
·
answer #7
·
answered by cal e7 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
It depends what state you live in. I am in California and CA is a community property state which means your name or not if it belongs to him it is half yours regardless of when it was acquired during the marriage or even ten years before once you are married half of everything is yours.
2006-06-28 12:28:58
·
answer #8
·
answered by 4X4 Woman 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
your name does not need to be on the mortgage. It is understood that your home is community property and the judge will have the final say when it comes to splitting all assets.
2006-06-28 12:43:06
·
answer #9
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
that is the situation i was in when i got divorced. i am still living in the house preparing it to be sold and i have a court order that half of the equity will be mine when it sells. according to my lawyer, the logic is, as his (former) wife i am entitled to half of whatever we had together including the house.
2006-06-28 13:10:42
·
answer #10
·
answered by wendy s 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
when this happened to me, the solicitor said as i was the homemaker, and had lived there a number of years i was just as entitled, as it stood though, i left him with everything, after all i was the one leaving, and couldnt justify taking half, have you paid into the mortgage??
the new law states that even common law couples are entitled to half of everything even without marriage. if oyu've paid into it you are most certainely entitled to half
2006-06-28 21:38:22
·
answer #11
·
answered by littlestarr02 4
·
0⤊
0⤋