the countries are from either Europe and/or Asia
2006-06-28 05:42:58 · 8 answers · asked by ssshhh 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
India qualified, but refused to play because FIFA would not let them play in bare feet.
Also, Turkey and Scotland qualified but refused, as did France, which didn't want to travel that far.
2006-06-28 05:57:03 · answer #1 · answered by TheOnlyBeldin 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Europe had not recovered from the II WW was divided a nd occupied by Allied and Soviet military forces , economy lwas still lowl
l n spite of the Marshall plan and there was stili
lots of reconstrunction in process due to war destruction
2006-06-28 06:08:05 · answer #2 · answered by opaalvarez 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Scotland, France, and Portugal were all offered places in the final tournament, but declined.
The most likely reason is travel costs, as transatlantic travel was still expensive, and some of the match sites in Brazil (hosts in 1950) were thousands of miles apart.
2006-06-28 05:57:22 · answer #3 · answered by pusich@sbcglobal.net 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
India qualified for the world cup but they didn't have the stuts to play .so they didn't take part in the world cup.
2006-06-28 06:14:13 · answer #4 · answered by sanjay kumar 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Must be Translavania. I think someone put a stake through Dracula's heart and he couldn't appear as 11 players simultaneously
2006-06-28 05:46:33 · answer #5 · answered by KH 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
india cos they werent allowed 2 play without footwear
2006-06-28 06:00:11 · answer #6 · answered by kc_cool 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who care it's soccer
2006-06-28 06:18:22 · answer #7 · answered by cal-p 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't know i wasn't born then!
2006-06-28 05:46:08 · answer #8 · answered by my season preimere! 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋