A team got 6 hits in one inning, but did not score a run, how did they do this? No Errors or anything.
2006-06-28 05:01:18 · 14 answers · asked by Marcus Aldrige 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
OK single, single, single, double play, single, single; which = 5 hits and 2 outs. Then the next batter hits the ball which hits one of the base runners. A runner is out if hit by a batted ball in fair territory but the batter gets credit for a hit.
2006-06-28 05:23:46 · answer #1 · answered by biggy4269 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is Easy, All the answers above are wrong, if you look at the first answer posted a run scores on his explanation. The only way its possible is, single single single. So bases loaded. Then a batted ball hits a runner. That is ruled a basehit, but no runners advance. So if a ground ball hit the man running to third. The runner going home goes back to third. Its ruled a hit. So 3 of those is another 3 hits and you have 6 hits and 3 outs. No runs
2006-06-28 05:20:35 · answer #2 · answered by Dan R 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are a number of possibilities. The first batter could single and be thrown out trying to take second, or latter thrown out trying to steal, or picked off. The second batter has the same possibilities. The next three batters could single without a run being scored. Now hit number 6 may have probably the left fielder throwing out the runner at home, or the man coming home is touched by the third base coach and called out (unlikely) or he does not touch home plate and while on his way back to the bench is tagged by the catcher and called out. I'm sure there are also other possibilities also.
2006-07-04 19:29:11 · answer #3 · answered by muskokastan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a runner is out at home or any other base then its a fielders choice. So quit using the same answer that has been used 7 other times. And for the guy that thinks he's a genius about 5 or 6 answers up: if a baserunner is hit by a batted ball while he's in fair territory then he would be out, not sent back to the base. Keep studying.
2006-07-01 21:37:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Three consecutive singles to load the bases. Followed by three hits to the outfielders who proceed to throw the runner from third base out at home.
If the balls are hit to an infielder who throws the runner out at home, then it is a fielder's choice; however, if the ball goes to an outfielder who has no reasonable shot at throwing the runner out at first and make the play at home, it should be scored as a hit.
It could happen if the outfield is playing deep enough to not catch a bloop single but shallow enough to freeze the runner at third who will not know if the ball is caught or not and not want to risk getting doubled off at third. To freeze the runner, the bloop singles would most likely have to head towards left field. Finally, the runner at third with two outs would have to make the mental mistake of not running as soon as the ball is hit. It's difficult, but theoretically, it would work.
2006-06-28 05:40:17 · answer #5 · answered by Swish 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
None of these answers work, you don't get credit for a hit if there is a fielder's choice. Ya just can't do it. Not possibe without a scoring error.
2006-06-28 05:12:53 · answer #6 · answered by josh22n 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3 consecutive hits, batter comes up, hits, makes it to 1 but the guys on 2 and 3 get out, another hit to load it up, the next guy hits it, makes it to 1 and just before the guy on third reaches home they tag him out - 6 hits, no point
2006-06-28 06:02:04 · answer #7 · answered by Christina 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-12-14 02:59:19 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Easy... single, single, single, double play, single, single, single with the runner thrown out at home. You could mix in a caught stealing or pickoff or runners thrown out at the bases if you wanted to get fancy but this answers your question.
2006-06-28 05:09:03 · answer #9 · answered by rotorobh 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All the baserunners were tagged out trying to steal a base.
2006-06-28 05:09:52 · answer #10 · answered by Awesome Bill 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋