2006-06-28 02:15:34 · 7 answers · asked by c_aman54 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Adam
2006-06-28 02:26:03 · answer #1 · answered by Jeffrey S 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was originally derived from the Egyptian "foot" which was 300 mm. Some say this was the size of an average man's foot.
2006-06-28 11:11:57 · answer #2 · answered by goldnwhite 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By royal decree, a foot was designated as a dozen inches. An inch was defined, if my memory of this lesson is intact, as 20 barley corns laid out together. No, I'm not kidding. We learned this in school. I hope it helps.
2006-06-28 11:10:26 · answer #3 · answered by griz803 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They used Crog's foot.
Crog was a caveman and they used his foot because it was less hairy that the other cavemen's foot.
2006-06-28 09:50:14 · answer #4 · answered by Pulse 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not mine for sure. We'll have to go back in time to confirm or just read pages of history.
2006-06-28 09:26:16 · answer #5 · answered by nayanmange 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
monkey
2006-06-28 09:29:33 · answer #6 · answered by thakur4u5 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mine. I am much older than I look. :-)
2006-06-28 09:19:34 · answer #7 · answered by ymail493 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋