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why did the Emancipation proclamation allow for slaves in Northern States and the following areas: Kentucky, Missouri, and Maryland. In addition, those areas of the south under Union control were not affected by the EP, namely, Tennessee and various other small areas?

Have the PC education liberal police lied to us again?

2006-06-27 09:25:21 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

13 answers

You're a blabbering idiot....try reading something instead of posting inane comments masquerading as questions..

The Proclamation was issued in two parts. The first part, issued on September 22, 1862, was a preliminary announcement outlining the intent of the second part, which officially went into effect January 3, 1863, during the second year of the American Civil War. It was Abraham Lincoln's declaration that all slaves would be emancipated in all states which had seceded from the Union and which had not returned to federal control by January 1, 1863. The ten affected states were individually named in the second part. Not included were the Union slave states of Maryland, Delaware, Missouri and Kentucky. Specific exemptions were stated for 48 counties of Virginia designated to become the state of West Virginia, and also for New Orleans and several named parishes in Louisiana already under Union control. That is, areas under Union control on January 1, 1863 were not affected. Lincoln did not think he had legal authority over these areas under his Constitutional war powers.

Lincoln himself had declared he had no constitutional authority to free the slaves. In addition, freeing slaves was still a risky political act, since there were still slave states loyal to the Union and the initial war aims were centered on preserving the Union rather than freeing slaves. As such, the proclamation was a military order issued by Lincoln in his capacity as Commander-in-Chief, rather than the equivalent of a statute enacted by Congress, or a constitutional amendment.

2006-06-27 11:15:31 · answer #1 · answered by chairman_of_the_bored_04 6 · 1 1

The original reason for Lincoln's agreeing to the Mason-Dixon line of allowing a "free" state and "slave" state quid pro quo was not initially for the freeing of slaves. It was to keep the Union (aka the United States of America) from being split in two. The Emancipation Proclamation came in 1863, 2 years after the Civil War began and the initial Southern States seceded from the Union to form the Confederate States of America. So the two things were not at the same time. Lincoln did not want slavery, but he did not want the United States to be destroyed in one hot moment of opposing sides. Most view his reluctant approval of this imaginary North/South divider as away to gain time to have more discussions logically. .

This idea doesn't begin with Lincoln, but with the Declaration of Independence and one of the writers (who was our 3rd President) Thomas Jefferson, and the debate about slavery 85 years before!

Unfortunately the Civil War (or from the South ... War Between the States) was in some cases inevitable. Look into how far technologically as well as financially the North was from the South at that time. But for whatever reason, I personally believe Lincoln, like Martin Luther King Jr., was a man who wanted everyone free

2006-06-27 09:44:48 · answer #2 · answered by Adrianna C 2 · 0 0

Lincoln hated slavery, but the war, from the Union side, was to preserve the Union, officially. When the Confederacy looked to be on the upswing, the European powers were looking seriously at recognizing the Confederacy as a notation. Had they done so, the Confederacy could have obtained loans, weapons, safe harbors, etc. (more than they were able to), and the Union would then be hard pressed to continue the fight (remember the "Trent" affair, 1861). By issuing the Proclamation, it turned the War into one against slavery. This made it impossible for the European nations to recognize the Confederacy, as it would have appeared to sanction slavery.

2006-06-27 09:32:45 · answer #3 · answered by aboukir200 5 · 0 0

The Emancipation Proclamation was a political move, intended to keep England out of the war on the side of the Confederacy. Lincoln took much heat from his contemporaries for the obviously political move, with many pointing out exactly that the Proclamation freed slaves in areas the nation did not control, and left them in bondage in areas they did.

I recommend the book "The Real Lincoln", by Thomas Dilorenzo, ISBN: 0761526463 for a fuller discussion of this and other topics re: Lincoln.

2006-06-27 09:29:26 · answer #4 · answered by ? 2 · 0 0

His true intent in what? The Civil War? Who told you that slavery was why the Civil War was fought? No, no, wait...I bet you are going to tell me that it was the liberal media or liberal public schooling or something else liberal, right? Ah, well. If you misunderstand the issues Lincoln was facing before the USA engaged in a civil war, it would be a good idea to do some research instead of blaming the opposing political party.

2006-06-27 09:36:24 · answer #5 · answered by MishMash [I am not one of your fans] 7 · 0 0

Maybe it's because slavery wasn't the main reason for the war of northern aggression. Maybe it's because the war was actually over state's rights rather than the contemporary reasoning.

But I am generally considered a racist for saying such a thing.

(BTW-slavery sucked then and it sucked now. Rather than whining about slavery in the past, why don't these reparations folks try to end the slavery that exist now? But I digress....)

2006-06-27 09:30:10 · answer #6 · answered by kelly24592 5 · 0 0

No one has ever ended slavery since very few know why slavery exisits ....it exsists in every nation but is some-what well hidden in the forms of 'street-people'-welfare-and forced labour ( such as the prisnor of war camps'-jail 'birds'-etc..)...where there aren't very many natural resources and an over-population for instance...also persons put themselves at the disposal of employers for a period of time in order to learn a trade or expand their talent without payment except of the very meagerest type....

2006-06-27 09:51:56 · answer #7 · answered by BILL P 3 · 0 0

He was trying to preserve the union. He didn't give a **** about the slaves:

"If I could save the Union without freeing any slave, I would do it; and if I could save it by freeing all the slaves, I would do it; and if I could do it by freeing some and leaving others alone, I would also do that." He wrote these words to Horace Greeley on Aug. 22, 1862.

2006-06-27 09:29:28 · answer #8 · answered by meathead76 6 · 0 0

Anyone will tell you that he only did it to handicap the Confederate army. And, no, it's not the Liberals who lied to you. Get it right, stop blaming Liberals because it's raining and your car won't start. Just blame the Cancervative Congress and Administration you can't afford enough for your sex-change operation.

2006-06-27 09:49:47 · answer #9 · answered by Huey Freeman 5 · 0 0

He was a repubtard and now we are slaves of the Bushler era , or need I say gas war era!

2006-06-27 13:53:46 · answer #10 · answered by ₦âħí»€G 6 · 0 0

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