2006-06-27 06:29:53 · 4 answers · asked by Gyte 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Sanskrit, dating from around the 2nd millenia BCE. All languages change somewhat over time, however.
2006-06-27 06:38:01 · answer #1 · answered by dorothy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Just my two cents, but I really doubt the existence of this Indo-European language that linguists are always refering to. In order for there to be a one world mother-tongue, as it were, all of humanity would have to be located in the same place, and the archeological evidence tells us otherwise.
2006-06-27 13:47:05 · answer #2 · answered by memphisroom 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All languages have changed significantly since PIE. However, languages such as Greek have had a literary and oral tradition for 3000 years.
2006-06-27 17:13:26 · answer #3 · answered by sashmead2001 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
who no's
2006-06-27 13:33:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋