2006-06-27 06:11:19 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Russia could not sell what it did not own!
2006-06-27 06:14:00 · update #1
The Russians had Alaska by right of conquest, in effect. They sold it (Seward's Folly) to the U.S., and no one else having a claim, the sale was valid. The same argument can be raised on virtually any piece of land which has ever been conquered.
2006-06-27 06:14:41 · answer #1 · answered by aboukir200 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because Russia had the land. Russia took it through conquest and "orienteering". The Treaty is legit, and the treaty concerned all claims of Russia on NA. The world recognized Russia's claims to NA, and therefore recognized their relinquishment of those rights with the treaty.
2006-06-27 13:14:52 · answer #2 · answered by lundstroms2004 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What the heck? Do you honestly believe that any nation is going to give up land based on a technicality or legalism? Alaska is a US state; there's really no going back from that.
2006-06-27 13:40:12 · answer #3 · answered by Loss Leader 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who cares, its ancient history and not going to change now.
Pick a topic that has at least some relevance!
2006-06-27 13:14:28 · answer #4 · answered by skyyn777 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, just like they took this land from the Indians, fu*k the government. crooked azz people every thing they do is illegal and fraudulent. and thanks to who ever voted for bush, he's the biggest crook in the nation i wish Clinton can run again. it would be nice if his wife runs and make him v.p.
2006-06-27 13:16:16 · answer #5 · answered by K-Def 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not understanding your question; please clarify?
2006-06-27 13:15:35 · answer #6 · answered by Swordfish 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋