Numeric value 1 can never be equal to 2.
2006-06-27 05:08:05 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and so on are all just labels for items. We have defined the group of integers by 1+1=1'=2, 2+1=2'=3, and so on where for any n≠0 n•1=1+1+1+ . . . +1+1≠0 (with n 1s). Then we have the negative integers so that for every number a, there is a solution to the equation x+a=0.
One thing that we can do instead (as is learned in slightly more advanced algebra) is basically set all of the integers equal to 0. Then 0=1=2=3=4=5= . . . If we do this, and keep the standard addition that we use everyday, we still have a mathematical object called a group. It is just like the integers, except that the integers are said to be a abelian group of infinite order, and the group where all the integers are set equal is an abelian group of order 1. In particular, 1=2. It is perfectly valid, but since the group of order 1 isn't really that interesting. But to answer your question, yes 1 can be equal to 2, just not in a field of characteristic 0.
2006-06-27 06:01:14 · answer #1 · answered by Eulercrosser 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
THere is a false proof that is pretty well known:
let a = b
a² = ab
Multiply both sides by a
a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab
Add (a² - 2ab) to both sides
2(a² - ab) = a² - ab
Factor the left, and collect like terms on the right
2 = 1
Divide both sides by (a² - ab)
However, this is false because it requires you to divide by a² - ab. since we are assuming a=b, a² - ab = a² - a² = 0, and division by zero is undefined. There really is no correct way to prove that 1=2 obviously, because it isn't true.
2006-06-27 05:30:34 · answer #2 · answered by mathu9 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The only way 1=2 is when 1 object mutates or splits into 2.
2006-06-27 05:16:19 · answer #3 · answered by iiboogeymanii 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good God! There is a little button above that states "Search." USE IT. This has been posted so many times, it's not that hard to search for "Proof 1=2" and see if any question like that has been answered previously. I did a search and 280 RESULTS SHOWED UP! Is it that hard to search for something?
2006-06-27 11:05:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Considering that 1=2 is false, no, you cannot prove it.
2006-06-27 05:15:01 · answer #5 · answered by mike_w40 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's possible, but not with any correct equation! There are "proofs" that show things like this, but they have subtle errors.
One is, and always will be, different from two.
2006-06-27 05:10:26 · answer #6 · answered by poorcocoboiboi 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure, notwithstanding it calls for undesirable good judgment besides. as an party: sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = a million , hence god exists. The decrease of one million/x as x approaches 0 does no longer exist, hence god exists. etc.
2016-11-29 19:58:58 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Naw
2006-06-27 06:41:46 · answer #8 · answered by bz_co0l@rogers.com 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You Go Mathu9! I remember that proof. I always liked it.
2006-06-27 08:18:32 · answer #9 · answered by kokosmom2001 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If we could, we wouldn't be using algebra anymore, would we?
2006-06-27 05:15:35 · answer #10 · answered by bequalming 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋