2006-06-27 00:04:14 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
A divorce is a divorce of course of course unless that divorce is of course the famous Mr. Ed.
2006-07-10 16:11:08 · answer #1 · answered by ^v^ 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No it isnt the same at all... just the word "Unilateral"... means coming from one side. Mutual consent of course means both parties agree.
2006-07-06 11:53:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
most of my friend who been married and divorce so many time and now they started to have mutual consents becasue they have business and they have own house before he met woman. so it better to have mutual consents becasue you work hard for that and if not then woman can get more part or all the money. so he did that 2nd time already and now his 4th marriage he not doing the mutual consent becasue he said that she is his sole mate. smile. I wish him luck.
2006-07-09 01:09:33 · answer #3 · answered by greenbaypackers1920 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This i am not sure on... I dont think so though but i am not sure. Talk with your lawyer or a law expert and see what they have to say about it.
2006-06-27 03:56:11 · answer #4 · answered by Lady Hewitt 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Bert T 's answer is correct.
2006-07-07 19:00:52 · answer #5 · answered by RY 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sounds good to me. nice and easy.
2006-07-07 09:01:26 · answer #6 · answered by materra/3 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i'm hungry
2006-07-05 21:51:05 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it isn't.
2006-07-07 10:02:40 · answer #8 · answered by don Quijote 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋