English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-06-26 20:00:24 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

15 answers

Short answer: what Washington spoke would doubtless have sounded more like English accents in certain parts of England in his day, because it had descended from them (in the previous century).

It might help to know what you have in mind by an "English accent". If you're thinking of something like the 20th century British "Received Pronunciation", the question is, did ANYONE in Washington's day speak that way?!

It might help to start by noting two simple facts:
1) there never was ONE variety of English spoken in England. (In fact, England of the 17th century and of today has more dialects, with more variations, than ALL the dialects of ALL its former colonies!)
2) NO ONE --British or American-- speaks the same English as was spoken in the colonial period! Both have changed significantly (including what LATER became the "Received Pronounciation" based on a politically dominant London-area dialect)

So, whatever era you're looking at, comparing "American English" and "British English" is not a simple matter.


Now about the type of English spoken in the American colonies --

During the colonial period (1607-1775) there for FOUR main migrations of English speaking people to America from the British Isles. These resulted in four main dialect areas, each based on the dialect of the area of the British Isles from which most of its early settlers ("founders") came. In fact, many of the distinctive features of English in the different regions of the U.S. today can be traced to these.

Thus the English of the American colonists was based on VARIOUS dialects of 17th century BRITISH English. Of course, since they all spoke a LIVING language, BOTH Amerian dialects and British dialects continued to change. Already by the time of the American Revolution there were significant changes had taken place on BOTH sides of the Atlantic. Note that in some cases some British dialects might preserve older patterns (words, accent, etc) and the colonists might innovate; but in other instances older forms would be preserved in AMERICAN dialects, while the British innovated.

As for Washington --

One of these four migrations was that of the Cavaliers from South England (migrated in 1642-1675). This group eventually dominated the coastal region from Virginia to Florida. Their speech laid the foundation for the development of American Tidewater speech, or Coastal Southern English.

Since George Washingon would have been typical of the people who settled his region, he would have shared this Tidewater accent (in its 18th century form). It would have been something like the English dialect (and accent) of the area of Southern England from which his forebears came, but with some changes due to over a century since their separation.


summary of the linguistic features of the four regions
http://pandora.cii.wwu.edu/vajda/ling201/test3materials/AmericanDialects.htm

2006-06-29 07:32:17 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 1 0

The American accent is more like the English accent was, back in the 1700's. This is why scholars used to go to the mountains of West Virginia to study English as it was spoken in the 1600's, as the people who had settled there, spoke English as their ancestors did. Or at least they did so before TV and Radio became so common. The southern accent, actually came from Africa, where you can still hear people speaking with the same tones that southern Americans now use. So he would have spoken like an American speaks now and the English spoke then, not as the English speak now.

2006-06-26 20:08:59 · answer #2 · answered by whatotherway 7 · 1 0

He had what was called a "Continental" accent. Still spoken today in parts of New England. Former First Lady Eleanor Roosevelt had the same accent. And not for nothing, but where do some of you get your facts from? George Washington was not British. "Hello?" He was the first President of the United States and born HERE in Virginia.

2006-06-27 02:16:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Of course! He was born and raised in England. Even without the teeth, he had a pronounced English accent. Everyone did. Most spoke the proper Kings english or else french.

2006-06-26 20:03:41 · answer #4 · answered by DagStar 2 · 1 0

Not quite. His accent would have sounded odd to us, but he was born and raised in Virginia and spent time in the West Indies. A local dialect was already developed--in fact, there are places in the tidewater where people still speak this archaic accented american english.

2006-06-26 20:04:17 · answer #5 · answered by irmamontez 2 · 0 1

Dude.....

Not quite. His accent would have sounded odd to us, but he was born and raised in Virginia and spent time in the West Indies. A local dialect was already developed--in fact, there are places in the tidewater where people still speak this archaic accented american english.

So....
he was not....

<<>>

2006-06-27 00:50:22 · answer #6 · answered by Mohit 2 · 0 0

he probably spoke with a combined accent somewhere between what is now a southern accent and an english accent. his family was in what is now America at least 2 generations before him.

2006-06-27 08:30:12 · answer #7 · answered by melvinschmugmeier 6 · 1 0

George was born in Popes Creek Plantation, on the Potomac River southeast of modern-day Colonial Beach in Westmoreland County, Virginia. His siblings received England education. His father's death prevented him from having such privilege. Maybe he got his accent from his family.

2006-06-26 20:12:04 · answer #8 · answered by sheijin 2 · 0 0

No. I think he had a Cuban accent.

2006-06-26 20:01:57 · answer #9 · answered by martin b 4 · 0 1

Yes he did

2006-06-26 20:03:24 · answer #10 · answered by Judas Rabbi 7 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers