What is the point in globalising finance companies first thrusting the devoloping countries into it. when all the money of the developing countries are gone in the hands of insurance and credit card companies of the developing countries, what is it left for the third world countries. Agriculture is protected with subsidies in U.S and most developed countries. why not globalise them first instead of coke and pepsi? Why not have the free flow of labour as the first agenda in the globalisation rather having it as last. Would they be with drawing that agenda in the end when all they wanted to squander has been done?
(I have posted the same question in immigration category as I didnt get much replies I hope to have soem replies here...
http://in.answers.yahoo.com/question/?qid=20060626210958AAUq5sf )
2006-06-26
19:03:27
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4 answers
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asked by
sr
2
in
Social Science
➔ Economics
I havent mis stated. free movement of labour does come after the globalisation of the finance companies. Only that I have mentioned the sequence. sorry for not writing it properly. On agriculture I have only questioned why the developed governements protect their farmers with subsidies not letting the global competition in immediately while in industrial sectors itsnt so.
Eventualy anyway all the sectors have to be globalised. But I am only questioning the motive of globalising things that benifit developed countires first.
2006-06-27
10:30:19 ·
update #1