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Why did FDR and the democratic administration during world war two use death camps against american citizens?

2006-06-26 17:59:30 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

1862 died during imprisonment

2006-06-26 18:10:54 · update #1

President Franklin D. Roosevelt referred to these detention centers as "concentration camps"

2006-06-26 18:11:57 · update #2

They were death camps

2006-06-26 18:12:30 · update #3

5 answers

You guys aren't worthy to lick the boots of the greatest generation. You should bow down to the men and women who freed the world from Hitler, Tojo and Mussolini.

2006-06-26 18:31:07 · answer #1 · answered by Richard M 3 · 0 0

The term "concentration camp" didn't = death camp until the holocaust was revealed. Before that it just meant where people were concentrated for whatever reasons. Internment was unfortunate, but I don't think the intention was to kill people. It's kind of inevitable that people would pass away during internment. You can't really apply our ethical standards today to 1939-1945, and I have to agree with Richard M.

2006-06-27 02:59:23 · answer #2 · answered by michinoku2001 7 · 0 0

Are you talking about the detention camps?

I feel that this was a huge wrongdoing, and, even though I wasn't even born yet when that happened, I felt ashamed of it when I learned of it.

I asked my father--***who had said, quote, unquote, when I was a little girl, that "The Germans are all terrible people, because they watched and did nothing when their neighbors were sent off to concentration camps"***--why we Americans were not just as bad, given that we allowed the same thing to happen to our Japanese-American neighbors, and his answer was, "We didn't send them off to die. But the Germans intended to kill all of the Jews."

And, although what he told me was pretty-much true, the fact of the matter is that, in BOTH cases, (the vast majority of) citizens from the majority ethnic group did nothing to stop the expulsion of their ethnic-minority neighbors from their midst--which, in my own opinon, makes both acts morally-equivalent.

Granted, some people did die in those relocation camps. But I wouldn't call them "death camps," because killing people was not their intended purpose--unlike Hitler's concentration camps, which were designed primarily to kill people, both massively and efficiently.

Another thing: You have to view what happened in the context of the war. Lots of things were allowed to happen BECAUSE a war was going on that would not have otherwise been allowed to happen.

An interesting tidbit: You know how so many people are complaining about the actions that GWB's administration has taken to massively-spy on American citizens? To my knowledge, the initial imbalance in Presidential powers that directly LEAD UP TO what Dubya is doing right now was started by FDR--this in the context of WWII.

2006-06-27 01:18:48 · answer #3 · answered by Cyn 6 · 0 0

they didnt. they did use interment camps for people of japanes ancestry but they were not death camps.perhaps you are thinking of hitler or tring to think but dont have the tools.

2006-06-27 01:04:46 · answer #4 · answered by glock509 6 · 0 0

say what

2006-06-27 01:03:21 · answer #5 · answered by SOCK MONKEY 3 · 0 0

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