ok in relation to your stupid ADAM AND STEVE post in our gay section read these QandA's
The condition of homosexuality:
Nowhere in Scripture is reference made to the condition of homosexuality, only to homosexual acts.
"Aren't you trying to wriggle out of what the Bible clearly says about homosexuality?":
What the Bible says about anything is selective, contradictory and liable to change in interpretation. People do not believe in " what the Bible says". People believe in traditions about what the Bible says. Judeo-Christian tradition certainly is homophobic but whether the words of Jesus are homophobic is another matter. The various Christian theological traditions are so different from one another that they cannot be identical with the words of Jesus. The believer must decide whether the words of Jesus are more important than Christian traditions. Arguing out of Christian traditions is circular.
The story of Sodom (Genesis 19):
The story about the destruction of Sodom is not about homosexuality. It is about the sin of breaching sacred hospitality.
The Old Testament prohibitions:
The Old Testament prohibitions against homosexuality in the Books of Leviticus (chapter 18, v.22; chapter 20 v.13) and Deuteronomy are essentially provisions of the Jewish Law. Those Christians who base their disapproval of homosexuality on them must be prepared to state whether or not they are prepared to keep the other provisions of the Jewish Law.
Ruth and Naomi, David and Jonathan, Jesus and the "Beloved Disciple":
These friendships, as described in Scripture, are not gay relationships. The first two friendships are about the righteousness of choosing those who are elected by God, namely, the Hebrew nation in the case of Ruth, and David in the case of Jonathan. The friendship between Jesus and the "Beloved Disciple" is a symbol of true faith and discipleship.
The Centurion's Servant:
This is one story in which a gay relationship may be mentioned. This is because the word used in Greek in the account given by Luke can mean "boyfriend"', we know that centurions and their personal servants often had sexual relations and it is stated that the centurion was very fond of the servant. If this story does mention a gay relationship, then it confirms that Jesus was less interested in what people did rather than in their faith and love.
Paul's condemnations of Decadence of the Pagan World in his Letter to the Romans, (chapter 1 v. 26-27):
This is the one passage in Scripture that mentions lesbianism. The passage condemns the pagan world for failing to observe the will of God as revealed in creation. It depends, however, on whether you accept Paul's argument that this is what the pagans are doing in the behaviour he describes. If you do not, it adds nothing to Paul's remarks on homosexual behaviour.
Paul's other condemnations of Homosexuality (1 Corinthians 6 v 9):
No-one is sure what the words used in these passages refer to. They could refer to some types of homosexual behavior but it is not certain.
2006-06-26 17:53:58
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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In some states yes I believe you can, I'd check with a lawyer and maybe a real estate agent first before doing anything though.
The process is "adverse possession" and the amount of time depends on the state most are more than 10 years. You must have actual possession of the property.
2006-06-26 21:05:29
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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You might have the right to Adverse Possession! Start using the property to park your cars, place items for storage, etc. Then you can claim the property. Especially if it's been ten years!
Talk to a real estate lawyer.
2006-06-26 20:14:59
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answer #3
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answered by ConspiracyExaminer 3
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The process you're refering to is "adverse possession" and the amount of time depends on the state, many of which are more than 10 years. Also, simply using the land is not enough. You must have "actual, visible, hostile, notorious, exclusive, and continuous possession of the property"
2006-06-26 20:49:53
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answer #4
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answered by James 7
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Did anyone ask you to do this? You can not just take land because you "took care" of it. There is a very structured way property has to change hands. Cutting-the grass, does not cut it.
2006-06-26 21:34:08
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answer #5
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answered by Christopher 4
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this might be adverse possession but it depends on where you are, if you are in the UK, this might not work out anymore. unless the land owner really doesn't bother about the land anymore.
the new regulation (Law of property act 2003) stipulates that you need to go to the land registrar to register your "presence" after 10 years..... then they'd contact the tittle owner to notify them of your presence, if they still fail to take any actions then , you might get the land.... otherwise, tough luck ol' chum....
2006-06-27 10:38:47
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answer #6
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answered by Rainbow nation 3
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If they haven't paid their taxes, you can go pay the back taxes on the property, put a lein against it, demand payment, and take possession. So yes. You can take possession of the property legally.
2006-06-26 20:21:50
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answer #7
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answered by BantamRooster68 3
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No, you can't claim rights to this property; but you can call the county and contact the owners to see if you can buy the property. They might be willing to sell it cheap.
2006-06-26 20:14:22
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answer #8
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answered by sylvergyrlie 2
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In some states yes I believe you can, I'd check with a lawyer and maybe a real estate agent first before doing anything though.
2006-06-26 20:33:10
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answer #9
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answered by booboo 7
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No you can not. it is part of the house's property. Just know that you are doing a good deed and feel good about it. Who knows. maybe the owner will come over with a nice gift or a card and a word of thanks.
2006-06-26 20:17:12
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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