This question relates to "Gambler's Fallacy". For the sake of this question, please assume that by using basic strategy that the probability of winning any single hand of Blackjack is almost 50/50. In this scenario, I know that the outcome of any single hand is unrelated to the outcome of the series of hands that preceded it. However, can a single desired outcome be predicted over a series of future hands? If I am not mistaken, the odds of ALL the player's hands being losses over a future series looks something like this:
(1) Hand: 50/50 (0.5)
(2) Hands: 75/25 (0.25)
(3) Hands: 87/13 (0.125)
(4) Hands: 94/06 (0.0625)
(5) Hands: 97/03 (0.03125)
Etc....
If this is true, might one conclude that the probability of winning at least ONE hand in the next four consecutive hands, for example, is about 93%?
If this is also fallacious thinking, please explain.
2006-06-26
03:23:18
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3 answers
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asked by
hughhowards
1
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics