2006-06-25 18:09:22 · 11 answers · asked by tamariskd 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
You must be a resident of the place where you get divorced. Then you are bound by the laws of that jurisdiction, for the divorce and for any subsequent orders child support etc.
2006-06-25 19:31:02 · answer #1 · answered by frankie59 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is a question of meerting your most recent residency requirements. If youj have resided in Texas and fall under that state's laws - then the divorce laws of Texas applies. If you have not resided there long enough, the court won't accptg the case for review.
2006-06-26 01:54:28 · answer #2 · answered by Coach D. 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Texas.
2006-06-26 01:12:57 · answer #3 · answered by mindwolf 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Texas... cexause thats were your signing the papers for the divorce...but if you were getting a divorce in scottland then it would be scottish law...you get it...
2006-06-26 01:14:35 · answer #4 · answered by music4uchick 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you were divorced in Texas, then Texas law is what rules in your divorce decree.
2006-06-26 01:13:37 · answer #5 · answered by Oblivia 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think it matters. Whether you are in Texas or Scotland, those are both groups of people known for handling things in a less "civilized" way, at least by some people's standards.
All my exes live in Texas, but I aint got no papers or nuthin'.
HAHAHAHAHAHAHA!!!!!!!
2006-06-26 01:23:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Texas, as long as you meet the minumum residency requirements prior to divorce
2006-06-26 01:16:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are subject to the laws of the place you get divorced in.
2006-06-26 01:12:57 · answer #8 · answered by David T 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Texas i think
2006-06-26 01:12:40 · answer #9 · answered by Amy S 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
TEXAS---a legal action that is initiated anywhere is judicated by the standing statues of THAT systems laws
2006-06-26 01:15:44 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋