who said having sex defines your sexuality? does that mean until you have sex you are neither straight nor gay? that makes no sense at all. sexuality is based on who you are attracted to. in turn, people usually have sex with people they are attracted to.
2006-06-23 20:32:23
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answer #1
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answered by gumby 7
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I don't understand where you're coming from... Let's take a look at the definitions:
Homosexual: Of, relating to, or having a sexual orientation to persons of the same sex.
Virgin: A person who has not experienced sexual intercourse.
So the question rephrased is "Does a person whose sexual orientation is of or relating to persons of the same sex go through a period of time in which they have not experienced sexual intercourse?" A straight and simple answer would be: Everyone goes through a time where they have not experienced sexual intercourse, including homosexuals.
Maybe what you're really trying to ask is "Can you be a homosexual without ever having sex with someone of the same sex?" I think most gay people would think so, but that is a quesiton that is completely subjective. Kinda like asking "Can babies be born gay?" Questions like that are grey and are defined on a personal level.
2006-06-23 20:45:08
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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a guy could never have been with a woman or a man sexualy ( hence virgin) , yet always and only be attracted to men and w*nk off to the thought of another man and never have acted on it yet . so yes i believe one could be a virgin and homosexual , to be attracted to the someone the same sex therefore makeing that person gay and being a virgin
2006-06-23 20:35:15
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answer #3
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answered by insertstrawhere 4
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Absolutely. Just because you choose to be abstinent doesn't mean that you are unaware of what turns you on sexually. Many people who are heterosexual are virgins, and just because they are not sexually active doesn't mean they are homosexual, and vice versa. Many girls want to save themselves for their wedding night, and as of yet you can't marry the same sex! At least not in the U.S.
2006-06-23 20:36:13
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answer #4
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answered by Purplelicious 2
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I think it depends on what u consider "homosexual" to be. Is it what u are attracted to or who you have sex with. I would say its who you have sex with, meaning that I agree you cannot logically be both. Its an oxymoron.
2006-06-23 20:32:26
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answer #5
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answered by Passionately Vulnerable 3
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you can be a homo and a virgin but once you had sex whoever it is may it be male or female you are no longer a rookie that means you are experienced already but not necesarily not a virgin anymore because in case of female you will be no longer a virgin if your hymen's been broken..in a male case if you have an anal or oral experience that will consider you as not a virgin anymore..isnt it unfair?
2006-06-23 20:35:29
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answer #6
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answered by Chief 1
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Of course, not all people who are gay have had sex before, they just know that they are attracted to people of the same sex as them.
2006-06-23 20:32:37
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answer #7
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answered by sportyspice_rogue 2
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Sure, no problem. You do it with yourself. There is a name for it which starts with "auto" but I don't remember the rest.
2006-06-23 20:33:24
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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