2006-06-23 19:04:20 · 14 answers · asked by xin w 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The proof is here: http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/51551.html
2006-06-23 19:19:35 · answer #1 · answered by anonymous 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because
1+1 =2
1+1-1 =2-1
1 =2-1
1 =1
1-1 =1-1
0 =0
Joyce
2006-06-23 19:10:03 · answer #2 · answered by joyce_lovely_gir1 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well it is like this:
Let x=1
LHS
=x+x
=2x
Substituting the value of x, we get
2(1)
=2
=RHS
OR
=1+1
=2(1)
=2
2006-06-23 19:33:37 · answer #3 · answered by Rahil Momin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What number is one unit after 1? 2! Now wasn't that easy?
All joking aside, I heard that Alfred North Whitehead and Bertrand Russell took 362 pages to prove it in their three-volume work "Principia Mathematica"! That's wild.
2006-06-23 19:22:08 · answer #4 · answered by God's Honest Truth 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sometimes 1+1 is not equal to 2
in binary digit
1+1 = 10
2006-06-23 23:44:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Please people get over it!! This 1+1 questions really piss me off... It has been asked like 234432904238402938402938.5 times since I joined Yahoo Answers.
1 + 1 = 2
Next time ask a decent question please. O_O
2006-06-23 19:20:28 · answer #6 · answered by ddeity_inc 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Listen, I'm gonna start reporting you people for these kinds of questions.
Hold a rock in one hand, another rock in the other hand, how many rocks do you have?
2006-06-23 19:58:27 · answer #7 · answered by powhound 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By definition
2006-06-23 19:12:48 · answer #8 · answered by Thermo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because that's how math works
2006-06-23 19:07:41 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
3X3
2006-06-23 19:53:35 · answer #10 · answered by M 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋