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Also prove that 1/logx has an inverse!

2006-06-23 13:53:40 · 1 answers · asked by NONAME 1 in Education & Reference Higher Education (University +)

1 answers

(1) Simple inverse is log X as long as log is defined for the specific value of X, except that it's also not defined at X=1 since log(1) = 0.
(2) Inverse function: If Y = 1/logX, then X = exp(1/Y) assuming natural logarithms. This is defined except at Y=0, which can't hold for finite X.

The proofs of both these are trivial. They are obvious.

2006-06-23 14:03:28 · answer #1 · answered by pollux 4 · 0 0

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