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11 answers

since she works part-time. she doesn't have to get any or you don't have to offer her any.

2006-06-23 00:13:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Employees are not always entitled to sick leave, that would depend on how much sick leave your full time employees receive. Treat employees fairly and pro-rate anything less based on 40 hour work week. If only the one employee, the same principle should be applied. Most employers benefit packages are a main part of business plan, with a wide range of different amounts. The easier way is to let employees accumulate monthly, for example: 6 hours per month, considered low up to 10 hours per month, which is high.

2006-06-23 07:41:38 · answer #2 · answered by Causerie 1 · 0 0

The law is a little more complicated than your question suggests. Here is a good reference:
http://www.compactlaw.co.uk/monster/empf44.html

All employees are entitled to be paid Statutory Sick Pay when absent from work. There are exceptions and these include:
# Employees over the age of 65.
# Low paid who do not earn enough to pay national insurance contributions.
# New employees who have not done any work under the contract of employment.
# Pregnant employees.
# Employees who go off sick within 57 days of having previously received social security benefits.
# Prisoners.
# Employees on strike.

Statutory Sick Pay is payable for the first 28 weeks of absence in any period of entitlement.

The rates of Statutory Sick Pay are here:
http://www.compactlaw.co.uk/monster/empf46.html

However, most employers will state in the contract that they will give full pay for absense due to sickness for, say, up to 10 days a year, and pro rata, and thereafter at the appropriate rate for Statutory Sick Pay. I believe that the employer would then claim the Statutory Sick Pay amount to offset this, though I think that some do not bother.

You really should draw up a contract for all employees to avoid any arguments. There is plenty of help available on the Internet and you should have it checked by your solicitor, of course, as well.

2006-06-23 07:14:33 · answer #3 · answered by Owlwings 7 · 0 0

I think that you're the employee who only works two days and week asking this question and the answer is NONE.

2006-06-23 07:15:10 · answer #4 · answered by Melanie 3 · 0 0

Depends on your company policy. SSP rules would apply - obviously, but companies are not obliged to pay anything when employees are sick.

2006-06-23 07:13:20 · answer #5 · answered by K38 4 · 0 0

None. AND the bum shouldn't be sick on just 2 days a week.

2006-06-23 07:13:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Really up to you I think. At 2 days a week, I'd think it would be unpaid leave.

2006-06-23 07:29:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Don't know the legality, but logically, 40% of the amount that is standardly offered.

2006-06-23 07:16:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Do you issue contracts of employment as the law says you should. It does not sound like it.

2006-06-23 07:13:31 · answer #9 · answered by djoldgeezer 7 · 0 0

What sort of shoddy company are you running? YOU SHOULD KNOW THAT!!! Good luck, sounds like you'll need it!

2006-06-23 07:20:16 · answer #10 · answered by WhyWhyWhy 3 · 0 0

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