2006-06-22 07:05:26 · 5 answers · asked by PEPE LE PEW 3 in Social Science ➔ Anthropology
MODERN HOMO SAPIENS
2006-06-22 07:06:47 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
Not necessarily just Modern Homo sapiens. There are multiple camps on this issue. Some argue that Neandertals were capable of language due to the location of the hyoid bone which corresponds to the positon of the larynx and pharynx. The validity of this is questionable. Others point to cranial flexion as an indicator which would support language as truly a modern human capability. I don't have time to go in depth on the issue, but never rely on a documentary as the ultimate truth.
2006-06-22 16:17:12 · answer #2 · answered by W 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Cro-Magnons. 35,000 years ago, flint tools, cave paintings, and probably a significant language as well. Their brains were 4% larger than modern homo sapiens, they had a somewhat sturdier overall build, and were probably responsible for the final extinction of Neanderthal species in Europe. Sounds like devolution from then till now to me. lol. ---UCSteve
2006-06-22 20:44:38 · answer #3 · answered by UCSteve 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one yet agrees on when language was first used by humans (or their ancestors). Estimates range from about two million (2,000,000) years ago, during the time of Homo habilis, to as recently as forty thousand (40,000) years ago, during the time of Cro-Magnon man.
2006-06-24 11:16:21 · answer #4 · answered by Blah 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yea only homo sapiens
2006-06-22 14:09:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋