Why can't an object be in mechanical equilibrium with only one force acting on it?

Answer 1

THEORITICALLY:
an object can be in mechanical equlibrium if the madnitude of the force is 0
but practically iit is not possible
as the body cant have a net force =0 with only 1 force

Answer 2

The word equilibrium has no meaning with single object or thing.

It is understood that when we speak of mechanical equilibrium, we refer the mechanical equilibrium of the object under the action of two or more number of forces.

By definition, ‘force is rate of change of momentum or is the one which changes the state of rest or of uniform motion’

Therefore there is no logic in speaking of equilibrium of a single force.

By ‘equilibrium’ it is understood that there are more than one force.

It is similar to the word ‘between’. The word ‘between’ suggests two objects or things to be between them.

Answer 3

because the force which is alone applied will have some direction and the object will try to move in this direction under it's influence.however,if two opposite and equal forces take part it, gives rise to a null vector force.the bofy can be in rotational equilibrium under the impact of a single force.

Answer 4

becos a for mech equilibrium net force = 0 & net torque = 0 .
with a single force net torque might be zero(if line of action of force passes thru centre of mass ) but net force can never be zero with a single force . i.e the body might be in rotational equilibrium but can't be in translational equilibrium.

Answer 5

right, because that violates the definition of mechanical equlbrium...