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John signs a contract to have his house painted signing a contract that was very definite and clear, the house was to be painted one month after signing the contract. John asked the painter when he would be starting the painter said that he was very busy and didn't know. John in a rage went and hired a different painter who did the work at a higher rate. John then sued the 1st painter claiming that there was an anticipatory repudiation of the contract by the painter. Tell me what you think is the probable outcome to this situation.

2006-06-21 13:21:21 · 5 answers · asked by jan_suee 1 in Business & Finance Other - Business & Finance

5 answers

Did John ask for a start date after 30 days or beforehand. Did he hire another painter after the proposed start date? I think that would impact the outcome

2006-06-21 13:26:38 · answer #1 · answered by Paula M 5 · 0 0

The painter had a month to complete the work under the terms of the contract. You didn't state when John had the house painted. If John did not give the painter the full 30 days, then the painter can sue John for the money for the job and win.

2006-06-21 23:45:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If John wanted to have the house completely painted by a certain date, he should have specified that in the contract BEFORE signing.

2006-06-21 21:41:46 · answer #3 · answered by insuranceguytx 5 · 0 0

John will pay an attorneys fee for nothing.

2006-06-21 20:25:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No penalty clause in the contract? Nothing will happen!

2006-06-21 20:26:35 · answer #5 · answered by Joseph 2 · 0 0

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