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2006-06-21 03:24:36 · 11 answers · asked by tom s 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

11 answers

The lottery where I am from is a pick 7 numbers so you pick 7 and any combonation of numbers from 0000000 to 9999999 are possible winners therefore the probability of hitting the winning number regardless of the number of people entered is 9^7 or 1in 4,782,969

2006-06-21 03:31:53 · answer #1 · answered by Aaron G 2 · 12 2

For Lotto games like the 6/49 type, the probbaility of winning is : C649 , that is to say 1 out of 13 983 816. If the game has 52, or 54 or 50 numbers, the probability is even lower.

2006-06-21 03:45:56 · answer #2 · answered by Yassinou 2 · 0 0

The odds are enormous. The guy that said 1 in 40 million is about right. But that's enough of a chance to send thousands of people off to buy a ticket. I prefer to save that cash for something I need or want now. As you know with all gambling, the house always wins. I buy the odd ticket now and then, but not often. Weather your uncle or anyone in your family has won before does not effect weather or not you can win it. Its not as if the balls are deliberately ignoring your numbers because your uncle has won it. If your uncle won at a 40 million to one change and you bought a ticket in another lotto and won at a 40 million to one chance than that's a 2 in 80 million chance which is the same odds.

2016-03-26 23:49:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1 in a million

2006-06-21 03:27:31 · answer #4 · answered by dphs girl 2 · 0 0

you have a better chance of getting struck by lightning twice than winning the lottery

2006-06-21 03:28:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Look on the back of the ticket.

2006-06-21 03:27:25 · answer #6 · answered by handydaddy 3 · 0 0

The ticket will normally tell you.

But this site might help: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lottery#Probability_of_winning

2006-06-21 03:28:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

just use combination in your calculator

for 6/49
one in 13,983,816

for 6/45
one in 8,145,060

for 6/42
one in 5,245,786

2006-06-22 01:10:26 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

however many tickets you buy to how ever many tickets every one else buys but theres anded up

2006-06-21 03:28:44 · answer #9 · answered by maddmattf12@yahoo.com 2 · 0 0

roughly it is about 1,700,000 to one if there are six numbers. i had to figure that out in a homework assighnment.

2006-06-21 03:29:06 · answer #10 · answered by neuv 3 · 0 0

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