roll exactly thirty sixes.
Final Answer = [0.08]
2006-06-20 05:40:13 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
ARGHH, ur comments are not helping >.<
2006-06-20 05:46:37 · update #1
Use the binomial. I've already shown you how in a previous question. And you already know that you need to use it.
2006-06-20 05:58:35 · answer #1 · answered by blahb31 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
X can be anything from 1 to 180, right? But we know that the greatest likelihood is for x=30. All other answers have a lesser likelihood. The answer, also, will follow the standard bell curve, with the "top of the curve" at 30, and everything else falls away. So x=29 and x=31 have the same probability, x=28 and x=32 have the same, etc.
I don't know how to calculate the standard deviation, but I feel confident that it will be vital to solving the problem.
2006-06-20 12:55:04 · answer #2 · answered by bequalming 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You should do your own homework. By the way, "30" is the most probable number of rolls, but it's not the probability of rolling exactly thirty sixes.
Think about it this way. If you do the experiment a gazillion times, ON AVERAGE, you'd get 30 sixes. But you'd get lots of 29's and 31's, and a very few 20's and 40's, and almost no 5's and 50's. You could plot that as a distribution. What kind of distribution is it?
2006-06-20 12:54:58 · answer #3 · answered by Allen 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The number of combinations that will give exactly 30 sixes, is 180 over 30 = 180!/(30! * (180-30)!) = 180! / (30! * 150!). But the chance of getting one specific of the (180 over 30) different combinations, is (1/6)^30, for the sixes, times (5/6)^150, for the not-sixes. So if you multiply the number of combinations by the chanse of getting each combination, you will get (180 over 30) * (1/6)^30 * (5/6)^150 = 180! / (30! * 150!) * 5^150 / 6^180, which is approximately 0.0796, or about 8 % chanse.
2006-06-20 13:04:17 · answer #4 · answered by User1 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
180 rolls, 1 in 6 chances to hit 6,
180/6= 30 chances to hit 6
x=30
2006-06-20 12:57:18 · answer #5 · answered by Asaju16 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It may be any number between 0 and 180.
2006-06-20 12:53:54 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
What distribution is that again? Poisson? Binomial? Normal? Uniform? Geometric? Dang, I hate statistical probability. I think I have the answer in my old notebook, but it's in the attic sorry.
2006-06-20 13:27:22 · answer #7 · answered by derek K 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sorry, can't help you. I had a hard time just memorizing the quadratic formula.
2006-06-20 12:43:59 · answer #8 · answered by kellykellykelly16 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
ans - 180C30 *(1/6)^30*(5/6)^150.
i've lost my calci and calculate it so do that for yourself and do tell me if it is correct
2006-06-20 13:13:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
my answer is 30
2006-06-20 12:51:15 · answer #10 · answered by JAMES R 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋