Was WW2 a continuation of WW1?

Question

And did the Treaty of versailles prove to turn Germany in to a breedin ground for someone like Adolf Hitler to come to power?

Answer 1

I don't think it is quite fair to say that WWII was a continuation of WWI as there was a lengthy interceding period of peace in which Germany tried democracy, That experiment, the Wiemar Republic failed in the end, but if is important to note that Hitler orginally came to power as Chancellor in a democratic election.

Still, that is not to say that the causes of WWII are not deeply rooted in the outcome of WWI. Not only was Germany charged with war guilt and assessed substantial reparations in the Versailles Treaty, but she was carved up territorially. Take for example, the creation of the Polish Corridor which carved access to the sea for Poland out of Prussian territory. France also reclaimed lands with substantial German minorities in them from Germany that she had lost in the Franco-Prussian War. Moreover, the Austro-Hungarian Empire was dissolved at the end of WWI and the resultant collection of weak lesser states ,created at President Wilson's insistence on self-determination as a ruling principle in the peace negotiations, left a power vacuum in Eastern Europe that was ripe for exploitation--which of course Hitler's Germany and Stalin's Russia readily exploited.

Add to this, when Germany's economy collapsed in the mid-1920's did the Allies seek to step in and rescue her out of self interest that the financial collapse might spread? No. The French army rushed in and seized German coal fields and demanded that its payments would be made in free coal until her reparation claims were satisfied.

What France learned instead was that there are two things one cannot do with a bayonet. One cannot sit on it, and one cannot dig coal with it. They got no appreciable amount of coal and they further crippled the German economy, probably hastening the world-wide depression.

The troubled economic times of the Depression, of course, provided a fertile field for leaders proposing radical solutions to Germany's problems (as it did elsewhere, i.e. Roosevelt's New Deal and American socialism). Hitler took advantage of that climate, pointed to the crushing war debts, the territorial indemnities, the military restrictions and so on, and gained a following in a desperate state angry at its oppressors.

Through his ruthless politcal tactics he parlayed a small political base into a dictatorship that threw off the foreign yoke that many Germans believed kept them from their rightful place as a world power.

But that is hardly the whole of the story. All the while various of the former WWI allies had been quietly profiting from helping Germany rearm and train soldiers.

This does not even contemplate the effects WWI and the diplomatic combinations that came out of it had on encouraging Japan's expansion in the Far East, and there were many implications there as well.

Still, just because one can trace many of the causes of WWII back to WWI, does not mean that WWII was an inevitable consequence of WWI. I would say, given the variously factors I have mentioned above, that it was certainly a predictable outcome, perhaps even a likely one, but not inevitable.

Answer 2

Many historians say it was the unresolved problems left over from WW1 that festered and finally grew into a new era of war - WW2.
Check out the link below. The Reparations clause in the treaty is said to be a major flaw in the treaty, and one of the contributing factor to the rise of power to the pro war Nazi Party.

Since then few countries have been made to pay reparations for wars. The Allies helped to rebuild Germany, Italy and Japan after WW2.

It would seem some often forget the lessons of time as now the US is seeking reparations from Iraq through the sale of that country's natural resources. Time will tell whether it proves a wise course of action.


Oh, and Anna (below), go back to school. You haven't a clue.

Answer 3

Short answer: No. Here's the long answer: Saying that WWII was a continuation of WWI makes WWII seem inevitable, which it was not. World War II was not fought over the same issues as World War I. It involved different nations in different ways. Yes, Germans, and especially Adolf Hitler, were very upset with the terms of the Treaty of Versailles. However, it was in no way inevitable that Germany would respond aggressively. In fact, had it not been for Hitler's rise to power, which was as much a matter of luck as it was public support, the Second World War might never have happened. So saying the two are the same war drastically oversimplifies matters. There is a strong element of contingency that should not be ignored.

Answer 4

No, it was not a "continuation" but that's a great question, especially since you've mentioned the Treaty of Versailles. While WWI was fought largely because of a number of alliances and treaties among various European nations, the "reasons" for WWII are a probably great deal less complex.

But the seeds of war, (with Germany at the core) lay in the Treaty of Versailles. For if the document had not been so punitive to Germany leading to horrific social and economic issues, the environment for Hitler to come to power many not have ever existed in the first place. Hitler used the terrible social and economic situation to encourage discontent, blame Jews (as well as others) and build an ultra-nationalist party that appealed to the young and ignorant.

Might this have happened anyway? Possibly. But the Treaty of Versailles was the perfect catalyst. It's also why the Marshall plan to rebuild Europe was so important to the survival of democracy in Europe, especially with the Soviet Union's influence.

Answer 5

I have to agree with many of the educated comments on this page.......but im going to throw in my theory anyway,

I dont beleive that the second world war was a continuation of ww1, but i do feel that some of the events that took place, gave power to further issues which escalated the start of the second war.

The general unrest of the European nation at that time, was one of desperation - You need to remember that in those days, Europe was still feeling the sting from the depression, with Germany and Poland feeling they were two of the worst affected areas, due to it already being low in economical assets.

The treaty of Versailles really only made things worse for them, in a time when they already were suffering greatly.

It was around that time, that the idea arose the it was 'a time of the people'. And unfortunately the horrific conditions that they lived with everyday, left way for an economical environment so damaged, that it was easy for people such as Hitler to slip through the cracks.

As it is common human nature to blame others for your 'faults', so the seduction by Hitler of the people of Germany made for easy scapegoating of the government, and the Jewish religion and Polish nations.

Hitler disliked Jews for their lack of 'true blood' and passed it on to the people , in particular young men and women who found it easy to follow a 'new radical', it was here that the antisemitism and hatred really flared and spread like wildfire.

The Government were easy to blame, simply because they were in power, anti semitism and heresey were big in lists of issues in those times, from there things just got out of hand.

Answer 6

WWI started because an Austrian Price was assasinated. WWII started because of Hitler's rise to power and the invasion of Poland 9/1/38. Many Germans did feel that Treaty of Versailles was a smack in the face to Germany, that is why Hitler and the Nazi party became so popular. That's pretty much my nut shell answer, the long version would be way to long to type!!!

Answer 7

These are two very different and fairly complex questions.

World War II was not a continuation of World War I. The perspective that says otherwise "ignores not only the very different origins and nature of the conflict but obscures instead of illuminating the special character of the second one," according to Gerhard L. Weinberg, a World War II historian. "The intentions of the belligerenets were fundamentally different" with the former having the two sides fighting over their relative roles in the world following the Industrial revolution and imperialism, and the latter having the intent of a "total reordering ofthe globe" including not only reorganization of land and resources, but of who was to live and control those lands and resources and who was to vanish entirely (Weinberg, p 1-2).

The Treaty of Versailles was a definite breeding ground for Hitler and other politicians like Hitler to struggle for power. It allowed the German people to blame someone for their defeat in World War I because the war terms (as written in the ToV) were incredibly harsh. The German people were resentful, and much is human nature, they wanted a scapegoat. They chose to blame Jews and the government because they were easy targets. The former have been persecuted for centuries, and anti-semitism was high around the world at this time.

Answer 8

The Treaty of Versailles PLUS the Great Depression created circumstances which would make a charismatic individual who seemed to have his sh*t together look potentially appealing. That, plus the time honored tradition of inventing "enemies" to blame (the November Criminals, the Jews, the Bolshviks, etc.)

I don't think it was necessarily a continuation of WWI, but an argument could be made, in that Europe was transitioning from the "Divine Right of Kings" to "power to the people" or at least certain people.

Answer 9

WW II was certainly a continuation of WWI due to the treaty stipulations that were in place in the Treaty of Versailles. One of these provisions was that Germany was restricted in its development of military armaments - which was quickly violated after Hitler and the National Socialist's came to power. Remember the Spanish Civil War? well, that was "practice" for the Nazi armed forces for their invasion of Poland. How do you think the Blitzkrieg came about? It was developed during the Spanish Civil War when the Nazi's helped Gen. Franco attack the Communist's in Spain.

Answer 10

Absolutely. The extremely flawed Treaty of Versailles which was the post WWI peace agreement (particularly the War Guilt Clause and the 33 Billion war indemnity) did so much to harm Germany that it led to severe economic conditions within that country which Hitler used to inflame the ire of the German people.