2006-06-19 21:05:31 · 6 answers · asked by navidoooooo 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Geography
In the 6th century bc the territory of present-day Iran was the center of the Persian Empire, the world’s preeminent power at that time. For more than 2,000 years, the region’s inhabitants have referred to it by the name Iran, derived from the Aryan tribes who settled the area long ago. However, until 1935, when the Iranian ruler demanded that the name Iran be used, the English-speaking world knew the country as Persia, a legacy of the Greeks who named the region after its most important province, Pars (present-day Fārs). Iran was a monarchy ruled by a shah, or king, almost without interruption from 1501 until 1979, when a yearlong popular revolution led by the Shia clergy culminated in the overthrow of the monarchy and the establishment of an Islamic republic. See Islamic Revolution of Iran.
2006-06-20 15:40:55 · answer #1 · answered by thesagittariansprince 4 · 4⤊ 1⤋
The name of Persia was formally changed to Iran in 1935.
2006-06-20 14:38:06 · answer #2 · answered by ensign183 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in 1935, Rezah Shah Palavi, requested that western states refer to his country as Iran when using correspondence, but it didn't officially become the "Islamic Republic of Iran" until 1979. Good question.
2006-06-20 04:14:11 · answer #3 · answered by modeep79 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When Iran exist
2006-06-20 04:08:51 · answer #4 · answered by d_1167 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
after the arabs invade and destroyed the empire amd made forced conversion it became iran
2006-06-20 04:11:26 · answer #5 · answered by sweet 123 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you do not get a good answer, check on CIA World Factbook, click on the country..
2006-06-20 15:04:52 · answer #6 · answered by Lizzy 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋