English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

If a homosexual man marries a woman and consummates that relationship is he now heterosexual or is he simply a Gay man married to a woman?

2006-06-19 09:59:22 · 17 answers · asked by The Tiki God 2 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender

17 answers

He is still a gay man who is married to a woman . You can't deny your true sexual orientation , You will still be attracted to men if your sexual orientation is gay . If a gay man marries a woman and consummates the relationship he will always be attracted to men and will most likely eventually cheat on his wife with other men .

2006-06-19 18:23:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 13 0

Simply a gay man married to a woman. Just because he married a woman doesn't mean he's following his heart.

2006-06-19 17:05:53 · answer #2 · answered by Tamsin 7 · 1 0

I don't think it is the 'label' that matters, but what is going on in his heart and his mind. Often, just getting married will not change the fact that the guy has homosexual tendencies or desires. He will need to deal with these issues on an emotional, psychological and spiritual level most likely until he is free of those desires.

2006-06-19 18:03:07 · answer #3 · answered by indychic 1 · 0 0

I was a gay man married to a woman - - then I cam out we got divorced and I was honest with freinds and family, like is much better being open about who I am.....

2006-06-19 17:10:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Yes, he would still be gay. Being gay comes from the inside. It doesn't matter who you f*ck. If a straight man was forced to have sex with a gay man at gunpoint, that would not make him bisexual.

2006-06-19 17:16:56 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

I would say a gay man married to a woman, but you know, it's not up to us to label him....it's his identity and how he labels himself, really.

2006-06-19 17:17:28 · answer #6 · answered by Clementine K 2 · 0 0

well If he still finds men attractive, and still sleeps with them, thenI would say he is BI-sexual, most Bi Men will label them selfs gay ,only for the reason of getting more gay men< some Gay men only will sleep with other gay men so it is possible this guy was BI all along!!

2006-06-19 19:05:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He could be a bisexual.
He could be a gay that is curious.
He could be a straight that was confused and thought was gay.
We need to ask the wife for more references about his behaviour...maybe double morality there...

2006-06-20 17:30:27 · answer #8 · answered by frankomty 3 · 0 1

It depends on what his feelings do. If he is still attracted to men, the second. It is probably unlikely that he will truly "straighten out."

2006-06-19 17:11:19 · answer #9 · answered by aboukir200 5 · 0 0

If he consumates it he must be bi-sexual. Gay is man with man only.

2006-06-19 17:07:33 · answer #10 · answered by azgraywolf143 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers