2006-06-18 12:09:50 · 4 answers · asked by elliottsadler06 4 in Sports ➔ Baseball
If the runner is in the act of stealing before the ball is caught, then yes the stealer has to go back to his base. The runner can steal a base if he/she waits on the base and starts running after the ball is caught.
2006-06-18 12:13:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, technically, if the ball went foul that means the runner was running against a hit which was foul. In that case the runner would go back. If the runner leaves base before the pitch then it is a "legally" stolen and the runner wouldn't have to go back.
2006-06-18 19:14:44 · answer #2 · answered by tsopolly 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A caught foul ball is the same as a caught fair ball - runners have to return to their bases and they may tag up and attempt to advance.
2006-06-18 19:26:45 · answer #3 · answered by K-Dawg 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You might want to restate your question. This time read your question to make sure it makes sense before you post it.
2006-06-18 21:27:14 · answer #4 · answered by southfloridamullets 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋