Vader's spiral into the darkside?

Question

While being very star wars savvy myself, I was baffled when my friend told me that Lucas subtely implied that vader converted to the darkside in part due to being born with ambiguous genatalia. Can anyone else lend credence to this this statement? Please cite references.

-Alien Technology

Answer 1

I just know that later, when he became the voice of CNN ("This...Is CNN"), he was never the same!

Answer 2

I'll give it a shot though I haven't come up with a certainty yet.

We have a boy born of a single slave woman, claiming not to have known his father. Why don't know. Some say virgin birth, but who knows. Think "Galaxyquest". "Those are his knees." Meaning she may have been raped by an alien life form, other than human, or by the force itself. What do we really know about the private parts of the Jedi council.

Anakin is a vergence in the force. What that vergence is, is vague. All that is certain is his genetics are askew. Too many metaclorians. What night that do to a body?

When he sets out with the Jedi, there is much made of change, of his choosing to change, or his fearing to change. From what to what is uncertain. Again you can read in what you may.

Next thing you know he has changed from a little boy to a girlish looking young man, almost feminine in features, although saped like a man. He as gone from 8 to 17 in te same time Padme has barely changed. She should look 23 if they matured at the same rate. They did not. In stead she looks 18. Hmmm.

Enter the changling assassin that looks like aman but Anakin can sense is actually a woman. How? How is it that he picks up on it and Obi won does not. And when he interrogates her what is up with the question , first soft and feminine, then gruff and manly. Again, hmmm.

And why is Padme' "creeped out" by Anakins early advances. Does she sense a similarity.

Next comes that whole "encouraged to love" scene where once again Anakin reveals a softer more coquettish side to his demeanor.

He even takes a servile role when dealing with Padme on Naboo. She bosses him around and he takes it. Some would think to get in her pants. Others might argue that it was because he recognized that she was more masculine than him, more commanding. You will see a similar relationship between him and Obiwon in movie three.

And what was the bit about the corse sand and the smoothness of Naboo. "Sand it gets everywhere"

The whole love affair seems kind of assexual, a lot of flowery speaches, and no action. Scene 23 in particular in Movie two dances around what type of love affair this is and around secrets, and how this relationship should not happen, shouldn't work, should never have begun. Is this the age difference or some kind of "Broke Back Jedi" thing. Could this be lesbian, sort of?

Meanwhile you have the whole clone thing going on. A lot of different types of reproduction going on here. Non conventional.
It opens the windows of possibility to everything.

Next you know Anakin is killing all the sand people over the loss of his mother who hardly recognizes him. Yoda can sense is pain and sufferering. Remember it goes fear, then pain, then anger, then suffering those are the steps to the back side. This is a blatant steal from Frankenstein, but; it works to drive Anakin towards his more masculine side. Padme see him as human at that point. He sees himself as better than human.

Suddenly Padme is a mother figure. He won't fail again. When they become man and wife he is her champion, she is his only confident.

By movie three, Anakin has spent many years away form Padme fighting side by side with Obi won. Again another Brokeback Jedi possibility. Anakin refuses to leave Obiwon behind.

The Emporer uses the incident with the mother to inspire Anakin to chop off Duku's head sending Anakin further into the dark side. The red over blue light saber signifies the shift.

Suddenly Anakin is having dreams again. This time it is Padme.

Lets not waste time on the uestion of when he got her or how seeing how he has been away for a long while. If his mother could get pregnant without a man near by anything is possible.

At any rate, he can sense Padme's future but not the children. He can't even sense the number of children. Interesting. The dark side is clouding his vision already, showing him only what would make him scared.

In the book by the time he becomes Darth Vader in name. He has learned of his appointment and that being a master he might be able to save Padme with special access to the library. When he is denied the title he is forced to listen to Palpatines offer more attentively. This is why he finally swears allegiance to the Darkside. He needs that knowledge and this way he gets it, either through Palpatine or the archives.

The more he kills the darker he becomes. Killing the younglings gives him intense darkness. He feeds on the suffering.

Finally the great conflict, is Padme with him or against him. Is she sleeping with Obiwon. Are those his children? Sure looks more like jealousy than rage, and yet Obiwon was with him in those early battles. When did Obiwon have the time? Vader's darkness blind him in rage. He chokes Padme and attacks Obiwon, losing of course, and losing sight of Padme's condition.
She dies and he can't sense it.

About her dying, why did she? Could his rage still be killing her as he is being rebuilt? Possibly Could they be feeling each other's pain. Could be. She dies for no apparent reason saying she feels the good in him. How?

Next thing you see is Vader, the perverted twisted figure in the black suit. He has no idea she as died or that the cildren have been born. His pain is overwhelming. He is now a Sith Master.

Now think back to the earlier trilogy and the comments between Luke and Vader in Episode 5 when Vader tells Luke about being his father, Vader also reveals that the Emporer has foreseen that if he had children one day they could take over the Empire. Why would Vader have been told this unless the Emporer knew he had children or knew he could still have children even after te fire destoyed his body? Seems logical to believe that Vader does not need sex to have children, at least not in te physical sense of the word.

Luke and Lea could be the splitting of Vaders masculine and feminine halves. It is arguable.

You asked, I theorized. Enjoy.

Answer 3

Reasons of Anakin's downfall:

1)his relationship with Padme
2)his fear of losing his mother
3)he was trained at a late age
4)his quest for greater power
5)he wasn't trained by Master Yoda
6)his friendship with Supreme Chancellor Palpatine
7)the Jedi Council put him on the Council but didn't appoint him the rank of "Master"

Answer 4

Have you seen the latest star wars he wanted absolute power. Then he got his legs cut off and face all distorted by lava. So now hes Lord vader. Nothing to do with his man hood sorry.

Answer 5

Well, in Episode I it is stated by his mom when Qui-Gon asks about who Anakin's father is , that she didn't know, he was just immaculately conceived. But no where in the films are there references to anybody's little lightsabre.

Answer 6

Your friend really shouldn't be looking under Anakin's robes. It's not nice.

Answer 7

If there was something wrong with his junk, then how could he father 2 children?

Answer 8

No. sorry. It must have been REALLY subtle.



Either that or your friend is yanking your chain

Answer 9

uhm he was born from his mom, who was a virgin(AKA no father)

Answer 10

uh no that is a rumour