Since the British executed a King 100 years before the French Revolution, does that make them wankers?

Question

Are the French more civilized than the British? Do you believe in divine right of kings?

Charles I was beheaded in 1649 for having Catholic tendencies and a Catholic wife.

Should murder be considered the same as state execution?

Was William the Conqueror a murderer? Why did he destroy the fertile land of northern England if he was civilized?

Didn't the English government i.e. Henry VIII and Thomas Cromwell force Protestantism down their nation's throats? Didn't the English state during Elizabeth's reign murder Catholics? Didn't the madness of English politics create the angst and emotion of William Shakespeare?

Answer 1

Actually he was executed for trying to arrest parliament and creating an absoulte monarchy and plinging England in a civil war. The Catholic tendencies were minor details.The French assassinated a king because he was tolerant of the Hugenot religon in the late 16th century a hundred years before the Enlish executed Charles the First. So who's civilized?
As for Divine rights of Kings, I don't belleive in it because it gave monarchy particularly the French;ie: Louis the Fourteenth unbridled license to wage massive wars all over Europe and elsewhere so as to force their views down someone's throat.