If so, how so?
2006-06-17 18:09:22 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Is it possible to have a realization with the absence of meaning and definition?
2006-06-17 18:28:37 · update #1
You can plod along adding up a + b + c or you can be lucky enough to have a 'gestalt' and just jump right to the answer without knowing the steps you take.
Definitions are always limited by the language they use and vary from context to context. Meaning is something always just beyond the grasp of definitions. Realization is doing away with the whole logical thing and just knowing and believing it to be true.
2006-06-21 15:38:56 · answer #1 · answered by megalomaniac 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The only thing that comes to mind would be what is best described as an 'epiphany' (given the level of thought I've witnessed within your Q&A, I will not insult your intelligence by defining that which you already know)...
Does an epiphanic 'realization' manifest some previously unknown definition, or does it merely allow the sudden comprehension of a meaning that was there all along?...
I'd be lying if I told you that I knew the answer to that...;-)
"The human lot. - He who considers more deeply knows that, whatever his acts and judgements may be, he is always wrong."
- Nietzsche
2006-06-17 20:11:52 · answer #2 · answered by Saint Christopher Walken 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Contrast (as antithesis) no... but in relation to yes. Realization occurs in the perceiver when meaning is apprehended and definition follows in propositional form from perceiver regarding apprehended qualities, states, and relations of realized item.
2006-06-17 18:23:16 · answer #3 · answered by echotexture 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You know, I would never have thought about the question had you not asked it, but since you have, I'll say yes, it is. Realization is totally connected to the observer. Meaning and definition are both related to the abstract-observed, that is the thing of-and-unto-itself. There are probably better terms to describe what I'm trying to say, but I think you can follow. Thanks for the question. --->UCSteve
2006-06-17 18:17:35 · answer #4 · answered by UCSteve 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh my! I think you need to look those words up in a dictionary...once you do, you see that this question makes no sense whatsoever. I feel bad for those who actually thought this was some kind of philosophical question that could be 'answered'. I believe you misinterpreted the "definition" of all three words..Good effort though.~smiles
2006-06-17 19:10:53 · answer #5 · answered by molly m 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no becuz wen u realizes somethin u find out the....the meaning of what whatever it is...it's meaning.......and thru that meaning of ur realization u discover it's definition. (i think) lol
2006-06-17 18:14:35 · answer #6 · answered by Valerie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes I think so. Cops call it as hunch. Fortune tellers call it foresight.
2006-06-17 20:23:20 · answer #7 · answered by Little Wifey 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes. physical sensations and instaneous physical reactions.
2006-06-25 14:13:49 · answer #8 · answered by Ouros 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋